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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Topic: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages? Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 08:11 |
Nothing will be changed if you say Iranian is a subgroup of the Germanic languages, the fact is that they were the same till about 500 BC.
Etymology of "Hot": http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=Hot&searchmode=none
O.E. hat "hot, opposite of cold," also "fervent, fierce," from P.Gmc. *haitoz (cf. O.Fris. het, O.N. heitr, Du. heet, Ger. heiß "hot," Goth. heito "heat of a fever"), from PIE base *qai- (cf. Lith. kaistu "to grow hot"),
But why "Hot" means "Cold" in Avestan language?
Letin Gelu (*g→k) English: cold, Dutch: koud, German: kalt, ... in Germanic languages (*k→h & *d→t) Avestan: Hot
Another word is:
Lithuanian: gyvas (*gy→kw/ku) English: quick (*k→h) Avestan: Hurva
Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 13-Jun-2008 at 08:36
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 08:33 |
Nothing will be changed if you say Iranian is a subgroup of the Germanic languages, the fact is that they were the same till about 500 BC.
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True, but the same applies to you claiming the contrary. Anyway, we were only joking.
Do you see any Iranian language there??
But why "Hot" means "Cold" in Avestan language? Letin Gelu (*g→k) English: cold, Dutch: koud, German: kalt, ... in Germanic languages (*k→h & *d→t) Avestan: Hot
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This is especially interesting. If I analyse it by your logics then: (it doesn't come from Latin, but I think it wasn't your point...just to be sure) cold, koud, kalt...hot PGmc kaldaz (g→k)...English cold, Dutch koud....then in the latter half of 1st millennium, Grimm's law gets into action again, but only in High German (d→t)...so 'kalt' k→h shift is actually k→x→h shift and took longer time to develop in the first shift (xangistas→hengest). The fact that Avestan has 'hot' (source?? can't find it) would mean it underwent the High German shift and then took even longer shift of k→h...so it would mean that Avestan's time would be about 1000AD...and that's illogical. This would again lead us to what we already jokingly claimed...(Iranian is a subgroup of Germanic). So yes, 'hot' in Avestan is interesting, but has nothing to do with Germanic. They're two different branches and none is subgroup of the other.
Edited by Slayertplsko - 13-Jun-2008 at 16:28
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 08:51 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
Lithuanian: gyvas (*gy→kw/ku) English: quick (*k→h) Avestan: Hurva |
Don't edit your post for a new word to discuss, create a new one please. It's overlookable. The gy→kw is not really correct, it's gw→kw. And again it would mean that Avestan has developed it further, and thus comes after Germanic as a subgroup of it. From PGmc kwikwaz however, I have no idea how you could get hurVa. Maybe you could get it kw→hw and then hw→w and then w→v...but it would take a looooong time...and still, it would be huRva. And there's the dead end.
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 08:53 |
What does hurva mean anyway??
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 08:53 |
Avestan Dictionary: http://www.avesta.org/avdict/avdict.htm ,"a" before a vowel is spelled "h", so aota=hota & aurvant=hurvant
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 09:04 |
Thank you.
I see that 'hurva' means swift, but this is the meaning found in English (almost the same meaning), not in other languages and it's not the original meaning (lively, living).
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 09:06 |
Anyway, as I'm looking into pronunciation:
ao - as out h' - as h, possibly stronger
It doesn't say A is spelled 'h', does it??
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 12:16 |
Well, word play is fun...I like it. But so that we don't get bored, let's compare the phonology, and start with consonants:
AVESTAN:
nasals: m, n, ɲ, ŋ, ŋʷ plosives: p/b, t/d, tʃ/dʒ, k/g fricatives: ɸ/β, f, θ/δ, s/z, ʃ/ʒ, x/ɣ, xʷ, h approximants: j, w trill: r lateral: l
GERMANIC:
nasals: m, n, ŋ plosives: p/b, t/d, k/g, kʷ (gʷ in early stages) fricatives: f, θ/δ, s/z, ʃ, x, h, hʷ (xʷ in early stages) approximants: j, w trill: r lateral: l
Now, you can notice considerable differences in each group. nasals: Gmc has only three, while Avestan has a labialised ŋ and a palatal nasal found in many other language groups (extensively Slavic and Italic), but not in Gmc. plosives: Gmc again lacks a few: tʃ/dʒ (found in Slavic, Baltic and Italic), but has kʷ fricatives: Gmc again lacks bilabial ɸ/β, voiced velar ɣ, voiced palatal ʒ (again in Slavic, Baltic and Italic)
Edited by Slayertplsko - 17-Jun-2008 at 13:20
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 17:51 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
You are wrong, Styrbiorn knows that I had posted it some months ago too, this is originally a Saxon/Scythian word which can be found in both Iranian and Germanic, as a subgroup of Iranian languages. |
Could you send me a link to the thread please??
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:01 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Well, word play is fun...I like it. But so that we don't get bored, let's compare the phonology, and start with consonants:
AVESTAN:
nasals: m, n, ɲ, ŋ, ŋʷ plosives: p/b, t/d, tʃ/dʒ, k/g fricatives: ɸ/β, f, θ/δ, s/z, ʃ/ʒ, x/ɣ, xʷ, h approximants: j, w trill: r lateral: l
GERMANIC:
nasals: m, n, ŋ plosives: p/b, t/d, k/g, kʷ (gʷ in early stages) fricatives: f, θ/δ, s/z, ʃ, x, h, hʷ (xʷ in early stages) approximants: j, w trill: r lateral: l
Now, you can notice considerable differences in each group. nasals: Gmc has only three, while Avestan has a labiovelar ŋ and a palatal nasal found in many other language groups (extensively Slavic and Italic), but not in Gmc. plosives: Gmc again lacks a few: tʃ/dʒ (found in Slavic, Baltic and Italic), but has kʷ fricatives: Gmc again lacks bilabial ɸ/β, voiced velar ɣ, voiced palatal ʒ (again in Slavic, Baltic and Italic)
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It obviousely shows that the Germanic languages have come apart from the Iranian languages, not vice versa. Don't you think so?
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:02 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
You are wrong, Styrbiorn knows that I had posted it some months ago too, this is originally a Saxon/Scythian word which can be found in both Iranian and Germanic, as a subgroup of Iranian languages. |
Could you send me a link to the thread please??
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:07 |
No it doesn't show either of this (Grimm's law backs it up). By your logics, Iranian would come from Vietnamese, Chinese or Zulu.
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:13 |
Thanks. So it's exactly the same link and it says it is originally a Germanic word, which Scythians borrowed and later lent to North Caucasians. So I wasn't wrong. It was already explained to you. You really have to read your sources carefully, I think this is the only problem about it - you don't seem to have any kind of difficulty with English, so just read carefully.
Just to be sure: It's a North-Caucasian etymological dictionary...so it says:
This Avar-Tsez isogloss (the North-Caucasian word) is rather interesting, because it is certainly an old Iranian (Scythian) loanword, ultimately going back to a Germanic source (Proto-Germanic *aluđ 'beer' < PIE *alut-).
So the North Caucasian word is a Scythian loan word, and Scythians borrowed it from Germanic. It's clear it is not of Iranian origin, but of Germanic origin.
Edited by Slayertplsko - 13-Jun-2008 at 18:23
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:16 |
Grimm's law doesn't mention bilabial fricatives, voiced palatal fricative, voiced velar fricative, voiced palatal nasal and others. This means they would have to be present in Germanic had it been a subgroup of Iranian. This fact pretty much disproves your theory.
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:36 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Thanks. So it's exactly the same link and it says it is originally a Germanic word, which Scythians borrowed and later lent to North Caucasians. So I wasn't wrong. It was already explained to you. You really have to read your sources carefully, I think this is the only problem about it - you don't seem to have any kind of difficulty with English, so just read carefully.
Just to be sure: It's a North-Caucasian etymological dictionary...so it says:
This Avar-Tsez isogloss (the North-Caucasian word) is rather interesting, because it is certainly an old Iranian (Scythian) loanword, ultimately going back to a Germanic source (Proto-Germanic *aluđ 'beer' < PIE *alut-).
So the North Caucasian word is a Scythian loan word, and Scythians borrowed it from Germanic. It's clear it is not of Iranian origin, but of Germanic origin.
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Where did I say it is of Iranian origin? I had read it carefully, it was just important for me that Scythians used the same Old Saxon word.
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:38 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
this is originally a Saxon/Scythian word |
Here.
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 18:51 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Grimm's law doesn't mention bilabial fricatives, voiced palatal fricative, voiced velar fricative, voiced palatal nasal and others. This means they would have to be present in Germanic had it been a subgroup of Iranian. This fact pretty much disproves your theory. |
It seems I know very little about Iranian languages! What is your source about bilabial fricatives and other ones in the Avestan language?
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 19:01 |
http://www.avesta.org/avdict/pronun.htm
CONSONANTS
- c
- as church
- h'
- as h, possibly stronger
- ñ
- as n
- ng
- as sing
- ngh
- ng-h
- sh
- as show, e.g. zarathushtra
- th
- as thing, e.g. zarathushtra
- dh
- as that (voiced th)
- v
- as Dutch water (a bilabial semivowel similar to Engl. v but not a fricative)
- x
- as German ach or Scotch loch (often transcribed kh), e.g. xshathra
- hv
- x (as above) with v immediately following e.g. hvarena
- kh
- voiced x (often transcribed gh)
- zh
- as azure (or French je)
All others are pronounced as in English.
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 19:07 |
For instance: as azure (or French je)...if you don't know what a voiced palatal fricative means, them don't reply. Here you have sources: 1 and 2
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 19:09 |
Oh and I forgot about the two affricatives.
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