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    Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 11:58
I have been wondering why there hasnt been "colonisation" of countries/Continents other than England+Spain+Portugal+France and all the German and Irish migrants that made it to the shores of the new lands.
 
So how come say for example Poland, Austria, Italy, Denmark, Germany or any other nations for that matter didnt procede too secure a country for themselves.
How come they didnt purchase a colony, because some of these countries would have been quite wealthy.
 
Were there any plans too purchase a country by nations who werent navy powers????
 
Also when the did Spaniards and the Portugese loose their majority, like Mexico??? What im saying is Mexico is mainly Mestizo, so when did the Spaniards loose their "power in numbers"
 
When the English were colonising North America, were they under the impression that eventually they may loose their power over these nations.
Were lots of Irish let in because they spoke the lingo and the English knowing that if they do loose power these North Americans will still linguistically have ties to the motherland???
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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  Quote Emperor Barbarossa Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 13:06
Well, besides forgeting Scotland and Wales as colonizers, the reasont that other countries did not try to colonize is because a sea route was much farther. Italy was too far from America to colonize it. The British started to get control of the seas, and they did not want to tolerate other attempts at colonization.

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  Quote ataman Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 13:22
Originally posted by OZZY

 
So how come say for example Poland, Austria, Italy, Denmark, Germany or any other nations for that matter didnt procede too secure a country for themselves.
How come they didnt purchase a colony, because some of these countries would have been quite wealthy.
 
Ozzy, I can tell you only about Poland. In fact there was a short episode of colonization in Polish history. Polish vassal - the Prince of Courland - bought for example island Tobago (but he lost them few years later).
 
Generally - Poland wasn't interested in colonies, because:
1. In period 1500-1648
 
Poland had huge areas for colonisation inside Poland (I mean Ukraine)
 
2. after 1648
 
Poland was involved in series of wars which weakened Poland very much. After those wars Poland was too weak to rival with stronger countries about colonies.


Edited by ataman - 26-Jul-2006 at 13:23
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  Quote Gundamor Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 13:33
Though theres alot of Italians in the U.S. and Canada. I dont beleive Italy became a unified nation until the mid to late 1800s and was just inexperienced at imperial power plays. Though they did try to do some work in Africa with mixed results. Not really a colonizing thing though.
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  Quote Aelfgifu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 14:18

I feel left out. The Netherlands were a major power in the world of colonies once. The biggest asset being the whole of Indonesia, but also many other areas, which made the Dutch one of the worlds biggest powers, in the same league as England and Spain.

 

As for the Spanish in Mexico, I wonder, did they ever actually have a majority there? Apart from America, which had a relatively small native population, I was under the impression that colonist were always a minority in their territories...


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  Quote Byzantine Emperor Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 17:23
Originally posted by OZZY

Were lots of Irish let in because they spoke the lingo and the English knowing that if they do loose power these North Americans will still linguistically have ties to the motherland???
 
Supposedly, long into the Revolutionary War era and perhaps after, there were people living in the Appalachian and Catskill mountains who still spoke English in an Elizabethan-era dialect.  Has anyone else read or heard about this?
 
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  Quote Komnenos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 19:46
Originally posted by OZZY

I
 
So how come say for example Poland, Austria, Italy, Denmark, Germany or any other nations for that matter didnt procede too secure a country for themselves.
How come they didnt purchase a colony, because some of these countries would have been quite wealthy. 
 
 
Germany did not acquire any colonies when the other countries did first, for the simple reason that it didn't exist then as a country.
Between the 16th and the end of the 19th centuries Germany was split in many little fiefdoms that alone did not have the resources or the vision to go around the world and to grab land.
Only the Brandenburgian-Prussian Duchy tried to establish colonies at the end of the 17th century, mainy in West-Africa and a couple in the Carribean, without great success. all of them were abandoned a few decades later, and Germany only became a colonial power at the end of the 19th century, after the German unification in 1871.
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  Quote flyingzone Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 19:54

Italy DID have colonies:

East Africa: Italian Somaliland (now Somalia), Eritrea, Abyssinia (now Ethiopia)

North Africa: Libya

Asia: Tientsin, China

Europe: Albania, the Dodecanes Islands (Greek), Montenegro

 

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  Quote flyingzone Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 20:01
Both Denmark and Sweden had colonial possessions:
 
Denmark: the Caribbeans, India, and West Africa
Sweden: the Caribbeans and West Africa
 
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  Quote Emperor Barbarossa Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 20:08
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Originally posted by OZZY

Were lots of Irish let in because they spoke the lingo and the English knowing that if they do loose power these North Americans will still linguistically have ties to the motherland???
 
Supposedly, long into the Revolutionary War era and perhaps after, there were people living in the Appalachian and Catskill mountains who still spoke English in an Elizabethan-era dialect.  Has anyone else read or heard about this?
 

Yes, they were "Scots-Irish", Lowland Scots that moved to Ulster in the 1600s, mixed a bit with the Irish, and then moved to America, total number that moved was around 400,000 to areas around the Appalachian mountains.

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jul-2006 at 22:11

Ok I meant moved populations to their colonies and started settlements.

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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 04:58
 
Originally posted by Emperor Barbarossa

Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Originally posted by OZZY

Were lots of Irish let in because they spoke the lingo and the English knowing that if they do loose power these North Americans will still linguistically have ties to the motherland???
 
Supposedly, long into the Revolutionary War era and perhaps after, there were people living in the Appalachian and Catskill mountains who still spoke English in an Elizabethan-era dialect.  Has anyone else read or heard about this?
 

Yes, they were "Scots-Irish", Lowland Scots that moved to Ulster in the 1600s, mixed a bit with the Irish, and then moved to America, total number that moved was around 400,000 to areas around the Appalachian mountains.
 
I'm always fascinated by the local accent in Charleston, which is unique I suspect. It sounds almost pure Belfast to me. (Which of course is in accord with what you say.)
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  Quote rider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 07:33

And besides everything here, Germany (after unification) was very much interested in colonies to weaken Britain. And Germany had Angola and something else in Africa and some little places in East Asia too.

Besides, the Duchy of Courland owned one little island in the middle of Indian Ocean or the Caribbean Sea, colonization? Effective?
 
I would like to see how places that have limited access to oceans because of landlocked borders or enemy-secured straits delve deeply into overseas colonization. They simply can't afford it.  By this I meant your
Poland, Austria, Italy, Denmark
.
 
Now, Italy, not being an unified nation was in difficulties at colonizing. After unification they succeeded partly.
 
And to be true to my memory, then something tells me that Denmark owned few islands in somewhere (I am not talking of Greenland).
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 08:40
Maybe most of you failed to mention (most likely as too obvious) that the main precondition for starting a colony or a settlement was to have a navy able to protect your trips from homeland to colony at a resonnable cost. For instance, the main reason why the Dutch gave up New York (then called New Amsterdam) was because it was much cheaper to go to England then to go to the Low Countries as the Royal Navy was the master of the seas.

That said, most European countries tried at one point or another to start colonizing somewhere. Some early examples are very interesting but most of them failed as the protestant colonization of Venezuela started by the Wesler, a Nuremberg based banker family. These piece of the New World was given to them by the Emperor Charles V as paiement of a loan but this was far too expensive even for them who in the 1520 were the second wealthyest family in Europe.

Other private started colonizing but they were smart enough to do it in partenership wih a state. The case of the Genoese is less famous and more ineresting than the too wellknown Venitians. The Genoese bankers had to way to colonize faraway countries, one was to start a somewhat shareolding company specially design to exploit a place (it was called a Mahone) the did so for the greek island of Chios, for Cyprus and for Corsica. The other option was to colonize with a foreign state as private investors, they did so for Madera, they brought the money, the Portugese king would provide protection.

To go on with this, it is interesting to realize that many colonization operation were done without the state (the two most famous example being British India and the Mayflower) or were mixt venture , partenership between the State and private investors).

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  Quote Komnenos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 08:50
Originally posted by rider

And besides everything here, Germany (after unification) was very much interested in colonies to weaken Britain. And Germany had Angola and something else in Africa and some little places in East Asia too.

 
Angola?
 Unfortunately, the Germans never colonised Angola. Which is a shame, cause the great Eusebio ( Benfica Lissabon in the 60s) could have played for Germany then , but instead he decided to play for Portugal which colonised his birth-country Angola from the 16th century onwards.
The German possessions in Africa were Togo, Kamerun, Namibia and German East -Africa, mainly today's Tansania and bits of Burundi, Ruanda and so on.
Angola, never.
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  Quote rider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 10:25
Sorry, I meant East-Africa, it always seems as a reasonable place (Angola, I mean). But Portogese... well, my textbook had German flag and hunters in Angola but I believe that that is wrong too since there are mistakes in it. Thanks for reminding.
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  Quote Aelfgifu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 11:09
For instance, the main reason why the Dutch gave up New York (then called New Amsterdam) was because it was much cheaper to go to England then to go to the Low Countries as the Royal Navy was the master of the seas.
 
I doubt we gave up New Amsterdam because it would be cheaper for the British to get there. My guess is that New Amsterdam, which was not a very big colony, was not very profitable, and in considerable danger of being taken by force by the British, who held the surrounding lands.
The Dutch made a Trade with the British: New Amsterdam for Surinam, on the carribean coast. As the Dutch managed to hold on to Surinam until the 1970s, one could say we got the better deal. On the other hand, it has been calculated that netto, the Netherlands have invested more into Surinam than it ever made in produce, AND the Netherlands still have to pay substantial sums too Surinam today, we might have been ripped off here... Wink
 
To go on with this, it is interesting to realize that many colonization operation were done without the state (the two most famous example being British India and the Mayflower) or were mixt venture , partenership between the State and private investors).
 
The Dutch East India Trading Compagny (VOC), the richest trading compagnie in the world at its peak, was a private holding, and the first business ever to sell shares, hundreds of them. In fact, it was perfectly normal even for people like housemaids to have a few shares in the VOC. So the Dutch colonies in the East started out as private property in the hands of the compagny.

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  Quote rider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 11:59

Why is it VOC? Quite surprising... V********** Ost Companjie???? (I have no idea of Dutch but the V as first letter doesn't seem right, and am I correct atleast in the second two words' idea?

The Companies held large lands, most of Canada was in the hands of some company from 1650's to 1860's, and it was truly, most of Canada.
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  Quote Aelfgifu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 12:06
Verenigde Oost-indische Compagnie, United East-Indian Company.
 
A VOC bond, dating from 7 November 1623, for the amount of 2,400 florins; written out and authorized in Middelburg but signed in Amsterdam.
 
 
Yes, I think the British East and West Indian Companies had pretty big private proprties as well...


Edited by Aelfgifu - 27-Jul-2006 at 12:14

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2006 at 16:08
Originally posted by OZZY

Also when the did Spaniards and the Portugese loose their majority, like Mexico??? What im saying is Mexico is mainly Mestizo, so when did the Spaniards loose their "power in numbers"
They never did, Indians/Mestizos have always been a majority. In fact in 1810 (beginning of the Mexican war of independence) indians were still the largest group, with 60% of the population (today its 10%), while pure Spanish comprised less than 20% of the population. A little more than 20% of the population was of mixed race.
 
Keep in mind though that all those statistics refer more to culture than to race. In reality the number of the population of a mixed ethnical background was probably much higher. When somebody was for less than 1/8th of a certain ethnical background, that part was ignored. So if a person was for example 7/8ths Spanish, he was considered pure Spanish.
 
IMO cultural definitions of ethnicity make much more sense than genetical anyway.
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