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About the Celts.....

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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: About the Celts.....
    Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 19:22
Originally posted by Paul

We don't have a collective name for the eastern Spanish, Northern Germans and llyrians, but we seem to manage without one.


eastern Spanish are Catalan, northern Germans are Fischkpp Wink and Illyrians are illyrians, where is the problem? what exactly do you mean with northern german anyways?
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 19:36
The people who live in the north of Germany.
 
Catalan+Fischkopp+Illyrian=
And the name for these people combined is?
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 19:40
Originally posted by Paul

We don't have a collective name for the eastern Spanish, Northern Germans and llyrians, but we seem to manage without one.
I share Temujin's view. Although I balk at the 'Fischkopp' because the Lower Saxons I know are very very large.
Why would you want one for all three put together?
We get by without a word that means 'horses' and 'spiders', but that's because we don't need to group them for any reason.
 
GCLE what do you call the pre-celtic people?
I don't actually. Not my period. However, which pre-celtic people? If you can't refer to people as celts, how can you use the term 'pre-celtic'? It can't mean the people who lived where the celts did before they got there in the first place. Or, possibly, second place.
 
A touch of the own petards I feel.


Edited by gcle2003 - 12-Jan-2008 at 19:42
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 19:43
Originally posted by Paul

The people who live in the north of Germany.
 
Catalan+Fischkopp+Illyrian=
And the name for these people combined is?
Unnecessary.
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 19:57
Originally posted by gcle2003

I share Temujin's view. Although I balk at the 'Fischkopp' because the Lower Saxons I know are very very large.


i am 2meter tall, i can stand it Wink. but beorna will surely forgive me Smile.
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 20:08
Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Paul

GCLE what do you call the pre-celtic people?
I don't actually. Not my period. However, which pre-celtic people? If you can't refer to people as celts, how can you use the term 'pre-celtic'? It can't mean the people who lived where the celts did before they got there in the first place. Or, possibly, second place.
 
A touch of the own petards I feel.


only now i completely understand what Pauls problem is. the simple answer to 'what do you call the pre-celtic people' is, they were the original indo-european speakers, i mean celtic didn't suddenly fell from the sky.
but in case of britain it did, more or less. since the genetics of the original celts of central europe and the british isles are different, he concludes that the celtic speakers of britian were not originally celtic speakers. so he has a serious continuation problem, his ancestors adopted a foreign langague so they can't be celts. then he concludes celts never existed because originally the british were not the same as those of the continent, so the term must be artificial and serves no purpose.
the only explanation i have why it bothers him so much is nationalism. he needs self identification which history can't give him as there is no thorough continuation and the original inhabitants of the British isles are obstructed by lack of historical records.


Edited by Temujin - 12-Jan-2008 at 20:09
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 20:25
Originally posted by Temujin

Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Paul

GCLE what do you call the pre-celtic people?
I don't actually. Not my period. However, which pre-celtic people? If you can't refer to people as celts, how can you use the term 'pre-celtic'? It can't mean the people who lived where the celts did before they got there in the first place. Or, possibly, second place.
 
A touch of the own petards I feel.


only now i completely understand what Pauls problem is. the simple answer to 'what do you call the pre-celtic people' is, they were the original indo-european speakers, i mean celtic didn't suddenly fell from the sky.
but in case of britain it did, more or less. since the genetics of the original celts of central europe and the british isles are different, he concludes that the celtic speakers of britian were not originally celtic speakers. so he has a serious continuation problem, his ancestors adopted a foreign langague so they can't be celts. then he concludes celts never existed because originally the british were not the same as those of the continent, so the term must be artificial and serves no purpose.
the only explanation i have why it bothers him so much is nationalism. he needs self identification which history can't give him as there is no thorough continuation and the original inhabitants of the British isles are obstructed by lack of historical records.
 
Except as I often stated on this forum, my parents are first generation immigrants to Britain, so I don't have a single British ancestor..... Only a German could confuse an argument for correct scientific categorisation as irrationality about fatherland.....
 
 


Edited by Paul - 12-Jan-2008 at 20:28
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Jan-2008 at 20:30
Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Paul

The people who live in the north of Germany.
 
Catalan+Fischkopp+Illyrian=
And the name for these people combined is?
Unnecessary.
 
They had a few cultural things in common, but were mostly different. Rather like the people of Britain and France, so why do you need a word for them combined?
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 01:52
Originally posted by Paul

We don't have a collective name for the eastern Spanish, Northern Germans and llyrians, but we seem to manage without one.
Is that an operative grouping? In the current theory of IE languages, Celtic represent a distinct group.
Moreover we rather need names for what we use often, not for a one-time enumeration of attributes/entities.
 
This is, for instance, a reason for why we need the term "Celt":


Edited by Chilbudios - 13-Jan-2008 at 01:55
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  Quote beorna Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 10:48

Temujin, I believe you said Fischkopp to the people at the coast. So I don't mind.

Spaniards, Illyrians and North Germans? I don't really know what you want. If we shall find a name for the pre-celtic population we can name them Pre-CeltsSmile. I like to call them Britani or Prytani. I don't know if they ever named themselves like that, but because I do believe a lot of them came from the Southwest, Spain e.g., I link them with Aquitani, Lusitani, Bastetani, Mauretani.

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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 12:52
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Paul

The people who live in the north of Germany.
 
Catalan+Fischkopp+Illyrian=
And the name for these people combined is?
Unnecessary.
 
They had a few cultural things in common, but were mostly different. Rather like the people of Britain and France, so why do you need a word for them combined?
Personally I don't. I need a word for the people who were living in the British Isles when the Romans arrived, and were pretty much the same when the Angles and Saxons came.
 
I wouldn't mind 'Britons' but the Irish might hit me.
 
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 15:00
Originally posted by Chilbudios

Originally posted by Paul

We don't have a collective name for the eastern Spanish, Northern Germans and llyrians, but we seem to manage without one.
Is that an operative grouping?
 
In language terms maybe, but in other terms.................. 
 
If one was studying Iron age houses. the French, German, Spanish and to some extent Illyrian houses had a lot in common. The ones in Britain were unique in the whole of Europe.
 
So to discuss house construction we would need a collective word for them, excluding the British.
 
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 15:21
 
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by Chilbudios

Originally posted by Paul

We don't have a collective name for the eastern Spanish, Northern Germans and llyrians, but we seem to manage without one.
Is that an operative grouping?
 
In language terms maybe, but in other terms.................. 
 
If one was studying Iron age houses. the French, German, Spanish and to some extent Illyrian houses had a lot in common. The ones in Britain were unique in the whole of Europe.
 
So to discuss house construction we would need a collective word for them, excluding the British.
  
 
I'm severely tempted but I'll manage to resist. Put it this way. If you're going to those places from Dover, what's your first port of call?
 
<thinks>I keep getting close to getting severely damaged in this thread.</thinks>
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 16:02
 
Boulogne?
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  Quote beorna Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 16:30
Originally posted by Paul

If one was studying Iron age houses. the French, German, Spanish and to some extent Illyrian houses had a lot in common. The ones in Britain were unique in the whole of Europe.
 
Do you mean the Urnfiel-culture?
 
Types of houses have to do more with climate e.g. or a special using and not so much with the language or the ethnicity.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 16:38
Originally posted by Paul

 
Boulogne?
Thanks, you rescued me. I got a Morecambe and Wise book for Christmas.
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 17:34
Originally posted by beorna

Originally posted by Paul

If one was studying Iron age houses. the French, German, Spanish and to some extent Illyrian houses had a lot in common. The ones in Britain were unique in the whole of Europe.
 
Do you mean the Urnfiel-culture?
 
Types of houses have to do more with climate e.g. or a special using and not so much with the language or the ethnicity.
 
Actually houses in pre-roman britian have everything to do with culture and religion.
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 21:55
Paul, like suggested above, the material culture traits are grouped usually under a name derived from name of a relevant archaeological site (e.g. Hallstatt - in Austria) or sometimes describing a feature of that culture (e.g. Urnfield = urn + field). If there's a common material culture, don't worry it will receive a name, until now they all did.
 
I disagree that houses anywhere in this world "have everything to do with culture and religion" because house is primarily a shelter, eventually a home and must serve first this purpose. That sometimes bears also cultural marks, yes it does, but this is not everything about it.
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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jan-2008 at 23:53
So if we take a Buddhist Temple and a Christian Monastry. They're largely identical, the shelter factor is primary and the worshippers should really bother themselves about the religious apsect.

Edited by Paul - 13-Jan-2008 at 23:56
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2008 at 01:41

Straw man fallacy (houses vs temples, not everything to do vs largely identical).

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