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Petro Invictus
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Topic: The Slavic element in Homer's epics Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:01 |
I am sorry for the unintentional mistake! It was indeed proto-Germanic!!! And the Old English derived from proto-Germanic since the term proto-Germanic is the hypothetical common ancestor ( proto-language) of all the Germanic languages!Old English was yet an earlier form of English which is part of the Germanic languages! Correct me if I am wrong.
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:04 |
Petro, you needn't post me links about Germanic languages.
Sure, but the words change and Proto-Germanic word wasn't 'eode' (I think even your own source disproves your claim). Old English was spoken only in England...there weren't Slavs in England.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:07 |
We use both (like many other words), not just krasi and I have already demonstrated that to you. |
I need to clarify a major misconception that the reader might face here! What the modern Greek comprises of in terms of vocabulary is immensely influenced by the project of Katharevousa in the 19th century! Many ancient terms had reentered the modern Greek Demotic via this intervention, so today it is not a mistake to say that both terms are in use: KRASI and OINOS! However, it seems to be a rather ambiguous intervention that has brought these two terms together in coexistence!
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Flipper
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:10 |
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
We use both (like many other words), not just krasi and I have already demonstrated that to you. |
I need to clarify a major misconception that the reader might face here! What the modern Greek comprises of in terms of vocabulary is immensely influenced by the project of Katharevousa in the 19th century! Many ancient terms had reentered the modern Greek Demotic via this intervention, so today it is not a mistake to say that both terms are in use: KRASI and OINOS! However, it seems to be a rather ambiguous intervention that has brought these two terms together in coexistence!
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Are you that sure again? Maybe I should post some litterature from the 15th century and you'll tell me what you think?
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Flipper
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:13 |
Also about Germanic Petro...Check out this thread as well: http://allempires.net/forum_posts.asp?TID=24637
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:14 |
Well, that's a nice thread.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:15 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Petro, you needn't post me links about Germanic languages.
Sure, but the words change and Proto-Germanic word wasn't 'eode' (I think even your own source disproves your claim). Old English was spoken only in England...there weren't Slavs in England. |
I didn't say there were Slavs in England, unless we count those from modern times! The term EODE is very similar to ODI! They are both Indo-Europan! Like WATTER and VODA! SUN and SONCE! This was to confirm that the root morpheme ODI or EODE means TO GO! In that regard ODYSSEY means a JOURNEY! And ODI SI in Macedonian means to GO AWAY!!! The term for journey in modern Greek is (correct me if I am wrong): ταξίδι (taxidi)
While the Greek term for TO GO is: πηγαίνω (pigaino)
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Flipper
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:19 |
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Petro, you needn't post me links about Germanic languages.
Sure, but the words change and Proto-Germanic word wasn't 'eode' (I think even your own source disproves your claim). Old English was spoken only in England...there weren't Slavs in England. |
I didn't say there were Slavs in England, unless we count those from modern times!
The term EODE is very similar to ODI! They are both Indo-Europan! Like WATTER and VODA! SUN and SONCE!
This was to confirm that the root morpheme ODI or EODE means TO GO!
In that regard ODYSSEY means a JOURNEY! And ODI SI in Macedonian means to GO AWAY!!!
The term for journey in modern Greek is (correct me if I am wrong): ταξίδι (taxidi)
While the Greek term for TO GO is:πηγαίνω (pigaino)
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Odyssey came to become "journey" because the epos...The name comes from the verb Οδύσσομαι which means something completely different http://www.grece-antique.net/abrege/show_lemmes/%E1%BD%80%CE%B4%E1%BD%BB%CF%83%CF%83%CE%BF%CE%BC%CE%B1%CE%B9Also, what about Οδεύω (to march, go ahead) and Οδός (road); Your example would have the following equivalent in ancient Greek Οδεύουσσι (odevou -si).
Edited by Flipper - 14-Jun-2008 at 17:22
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:22 |
Figurative sense of "long, adventurous journey" is first recorded 1889. 1It comes from Odysseus.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:23 |
Nice thread indeed! What does it have to do with ēode? Moreover it was rather a selective list of words from something called Avestan Dictionary: http://www.avesta.org/avdict/avdict.htm! What is your point! "AVESTAN (incorrectly) Zend Language, eastern Iranian language of the Avesta, the sacred book of Zoroastrianism. Avestan falls into two strata, the older being that of the Gathas, which reflects a linguistic stage (dating from c. 600 BC)
close to that of Vedic Sanskrit in India. The greater part of the
Avesta is written in a more recent form of the language and shows
gradual simplification and variation in grammatical forms. When the
canon of the Avesta was being fixed (4th to 6th century AD), Avestan was a dead language known only to priests. "
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Flipper
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:26 |
My point was alternative theories and i thought you would have something to add there. Nothing more.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:33 |
WOW! How excellent! Οδεύω indeed meant to march! Οδός indeed meant a road! Odyssey then means a JOURNEY! What was that French explanation, by the way! However in modern Greek the word for road is: δρόμος (dromos), and the word for marching is: περπατώ (perpato), πορεία (poreia), εμβατήριο (embatirio)...
In modern day Macedonian it is ODI SI, to GO AWAY (on a journey), in Russian it is: идти, in Serbian it is HODITI! While in modern Greek it is πηγαίνω (pigaino)... Can you explain this to me!
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:34 |
Originally posted by Flipper
My point was alternative theories and i thought you would have something to add there. Nothing more.
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Isn't this thread on the Slavic character of Homer's language an alternative theory as well?
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:34 |
Oddysey means journey for a bit more than 100 years!! When are you gonna get it?
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:35 |
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
Originally posted by Flipper
My point was alternative theories and i thought you would have something to add there. Nothing more. |
Isn't this thread on the Slavic character of Homer's language an alternative theory as well?
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And that was his point.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:39 |
OK! Let me clarify the developments in the modern Greek language so that we have a better focus! I do not deny the use of the ancient terminology in modern Greek. However: What you guys fail to admit here is that it was the policy of the newly created
Greek state ever since the independence in the 1820’s to promote archaic forms
of Greek in order to approximate the language of the modern Greeks to that of
the ancient. This experiment known as Katharevousa, even though did not replace the Dimotiki fully, influenced the modern Greek language to a great extent! Let me explain: "Katharevousa (Kathareuousa, Greek: Καθαρεύουσα,
IPA: [kaθaˈrɛvusa],
lit. "the purified one"), is a form of the Greek language conceived
in the early 19th century by Greek intellectual and revolutionary leader
Adamantios Korais (1748–1833)."
"Katharevousa was set at a midpoint between Ancient Greek and the Modern
Greek of the time. It stressed both a more ancient vocabulary and a simplified
form of the archaic grammar."
"Part of its purpose was to mediate the struggle between the
"archaists" favouring full reversion to archaic forms, and the
"modernists". Katharevousa can also be translated as "the clean
one", implying a form of Greek without extraneous influences, as it may
hypothetically have independently evolved from ancient Greek, but in its modern
Greek connotation it merely means "formal language"."
"In later years, Katharevousa was used for official and formal purposes
(such as politics, letters, official documents, and newscasting), while
Dimotiki (δημοτική), 'demotic' or popular Greek, was the daily language. This
created a DIGLOSSIC situation whereby most of the Greek population was excluded
from the public sphere and advancement in education unless they conformed to
Katharevousa.
In 1976, Dimotiki was made the official language and by the end of the 20th
century full Katharevousa in its earlier form had become obsolete. However,
many grammatical and syntactical rules that Katharevousa had adopted, and MUCH
VOCABULARY from the Katharevousa strand, have come into contact with Dimotiki
during the two centuries of its existence, so that the project's emphasis has
made an observable contribution to the language as it is used today."
Therefore, I do accept that Greeks use both OINOS and KRASI today! However,
it is obvious that it was part of the propaganda of the past century that has
done everything to approximate the Modern Greek to the archaic!
What I am saying is that due to the fact that OINOS has its form in Slavic
languages as VINO which has remained in this form ever since Homer's times,
without any governmental attempts to change the modern languages and
approximate them to Homer's, it is likely to suggest that Homer used a form of
proto-Slavic language, in his works.
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:42 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Oddysey means journey for a bit more than 100 years!! When are you gonna get it? |
Well ODI SI means GO ON A JOURNEY for more than 3 millenia in Macedonian! Maybe you misinterpret the true meaning of Odyssey! EODE-ODI SI-ODYSSEY! I got it thanks!
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:43 |
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
Originally posted by Flipper
My point was alternative theories and i thought you would have something to add there. Nothing more. |
Isn't this thread on the Slavic character of Homer's language an alternative theory as well?
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And that was his point.
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That is really an interesting point! Orthodoxy vs. Alternatives! How cute! I always thought that the Alternatives lead evolution forward!
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Petro Invictus
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:46 |
Here is another example of the possible connection between Homer and the Slavic languages:
Quote: Iliad Book I (1.531)
"tên d' apameibomenos PROSEPHE nephelêgereta Zeus: daimoniê* aiei men oïeai oude se lêthô*: prêxai* d' empês* ou ti dunêseai, all' apo thumou*** mallon EMOI ESEAI*: to de toi* kai rhigion* estai*. ei d' houtô TOUT' ESTIN EMOI mellei** philon einai: 565 all' akeousa* kathêso,EMOI d' epipeitheo muthôi, mê nu toi ou chraismôsin** hosoi* theoi eis' en Olumpôi* asson* ionth'*, hote ken toi aaptous* cheiras epheiô*."
In English:
"Then
in answer to her spoke Zeus, the cloud-gatherer: [560] Strange one,1
you are always suspecting, and I do not escape you; yet you shall be
able to accomplish nothing, but shall be even further from my heart;
and that shall be the worse for you. If this thing is as you say, then
it must be pleasing to me. Sit down in silence, and obey my word, [565]
lest all the gods that are in Olympus avail you not against my drawing
near, when I put forth upon you my irresistible hands."
The CAPITALIZED words in Homer's quote have the same form in Modern Macedonian, while in Modern Greek they are rather different:
Homer: prosphêmi,prosephê; English: to speak to, address; Macedonian: PROZVE, PROZIVA; Greek: μιλώ (milo), μιλήστε
Homer:
eimi,eseai, estai; English: to be, to exist; Macedonian: (JE)SUM,
(JE)SI, (JE)STE ; Greek: be=είμαι, βρίσκομαι (eimai,
briskomai),exist=υπάρχω, υφίσταμαι (yparcho, yfistamai)
Homer: emos,emôi; English: mine; Macedonian: MOJ, MOJA, MOI, MOE; Greek: δικός μου (dikos mou)
Homer: houtos, touto; English: that; Macedonian: TOA(TE); Greek:εκείνος, ότι, ώστε (ekeinos, oti, oste)
This
is just an indication to the possible origins of these words! All
things considered, there is a lot of linguistic material in Homer's
epics that suggestс that there had been a certain proto-Slavic
influence at least in the earliest stages of Homer's oral transmission
that has survived until today! However, since the epic was recorded in
Classical times, it has suffered a huge influence from other non-Slavic
languages such as the Doric, Attic, Ionic dialects, during its long
transmission in a form that has survived in the South Slavic cultures,
known as "guslari"!
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Slayertplsko
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Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 17:46 |
Alah means a temple in Old Saxon - so all Muslims are Saxon...please Macedonian is a Bulgarian dialect that was standardised in 20th century - there was no Macedonian (slavic) 3000 years ago - cut out this nonsense. please. You can get your nationalist pride out of your system elsewhere.
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