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QuoteReplyTopic: How Consistent Was Bismarck In His Aims And Methods Posted: 13-Aug-2005 at 05:29
One shouldn't forget Bismarck's contribution to World cuisine, the "Bismarckhering", an invention by a Stralsund fish monger and Bismarck admirer.
Here is the recipe for all you friends of the 'Iron Chancellor":
Soak four raw Hering filets in water for about 4 hrs. Drain and put in a bowl. Add 2 small onions, cut in rings. Make a marinade out of good vinegar, bay leaves, black pepper corns, and mustard seed, enough to cover the fish. Pour over the Hering, and let it all marinade for at least 24hrs.
Garnish with more onions, gherkins and parsley and wash it all down with some Schnaps.
Guten Appetit!
I always thought he put the interests of all Germans instead of just Prussia, since the new "kingdom" was not called "Greater Prussia". I do not think the king of keizer referred to himself as the Emperor of greater Prussia either anymore.
Well, once the German Empire was a reality, and he became Reichskanzler, Bismarck's responsibilities expanded. Prior to that, he was (and remained) minister president of the royal Prussian government.
The Empire had a more complicated structure than most imagine. The kingdoms of Bavaria, Wuerttemberg and Saxony, and other smaller states, retained much internal independence although there was a constitution for the Empire as a whole. One might consider it a "federal" system with a far stronger central authority than, say, the U.S. This is what I recall anyway.
Perhaps Komnenos, as a German, can enlighten us further (between the fish course and the Sauerbraten)
Well Prussia is right smack in the middle of both France and Russia, would seem logical to "keep friends with Russia" I dont know much about his foreign policies though.. could someone please elaborate?
OK...here goes, but correct any mistakes of fact....which there likely are.
Bismarck saw two potential enemies of Germany, France and Russia. He, and the Emperor, Wilhelm I, also saw a monarchical affinity between Russia and the class from which he came, that of rural Prussia. His obvious choice was an understanding with Russia that would be nurtured and preserved as far as possible. France was the danger even after the downfall of 1870/71. After that, the French Empire fell into disrepute, and socialist forces became stronger there (Paris commune, etc.), and did not evaporate after the suppression of the commune or the withdrawal of German forces.
The rise of socialism and the possibility of war were the domestic and international issues that mattered most to Bismarck. In this, he had plenty of company in XIXc. society. Some Germans wanted a return of monarchy in France and a throwback to the settlement of 1815. Bismarck disagreed. If France, as a hotbed of socialism and revolution, could be isolated, the monarchies of Europe might work against her interests to the benefit of Germany, keeping her less able to form dangerous anti-German alliances.....for the revanchism, etc. He saw it as a way to keep France weaker than before the German Empire. Popular, republican rule was seen as disuniting, and France would demonstrate it's weakness.
His triumph was the congress of Berlin where, on German soil, the powers made arrangements for the Balkans that were in their own interests (what would we have expected them to do?), and Bismarck was able to take credit for a "great" international settlement. Russia was actually weakened by the Berlin agreements, as her victory over Turkey (more for national pride and pan-Slavism) actually weakened her position in the Balkans. Now with Turkey so diminished, there was no real buffer between Russia, driving toward the Straits, and the British Royal Navy that could check that. By this means, Bismarck also saw an advantage in lessening Russian threats against Austria-Hungary and also potentially against Germany. V-e-r-y Realpolitik.
I think his main diplomatic strategy was twofold:
First, isolate and hopefully discredit republican France.
Second, while expressing monarchical solidarity with Russia, try to work with Austria-Hungary (also a monarchical ally in the Dreikaiserbund) to limit Russian moves in the Balkans, while reminding Russia that the British were always in the picture in the eastern Mediterranean....kind of a double threat to keep your monarchical "friend" at bay, and less of a threat.
This is over-simplified, but it is the way I see it. Other thoughts?
Oh, BTW, Bismarck did see the dangers in the hornets nest of the Balkans. I don't think he thought Germany had much chance to do anything about that except keep a lid on it.
I think that the European system of powers after the Franco-Prussian
war had to phases and those were less merit of the Germans than of the
British.
Right after the German unification, the traditional Aglo-Prussian
alliance still had some merits for the Bristish, specially because it
was the time of the rush for Africa and France and Britain were the
main competitors, while Germany only could hope to get some smaller
territories. Therfore Bismark's policy could work.
But once Africa had been fully divided, after the conflic over Eastern
Sudan was over, France was much better under the protective wing of
Britain, who controlled effectively the seas - something that France,
much weaker and needed to keep a large army, couldn't do by itself.
On the other hand the speedy economic growth of Germany placed it
rivalling Britain... eventually the two main powers of Europe would
have to clash somehow, specially considering that the Anglo-German
custom union (something that would had allowed Germany to develope
without colonial expansion) had failed to materialize.
The rest of post-Bismarkian troubles are just reflection of the growing
tension between the two man economic powers of Europe. Surely you're
right that the Germans shouldn't have cancelled the alliance with
Russia but I'm sure they also had some good reasons to do it (probably
a too pro-western Russian policy).
The whole colonial enterprise was a waste....it had become "the thing to do" among the powers (even Belgium), and there was never any hope of Germany being able to defend any colonial interests against either Britain or France. Bismarck used the enthusiasm to his advantage as much as he could in domestic and diplomatic affairs.
The old Anglo-Prussian, or Anglo-German affinity was much reduced by the rise of the German Empire, and as you say, the industrial development of a rival to British strength.
The main point in international affairs after the Congress of Berlin in 1878 was the Balkans....weakening of Turkey and rising nationalism among their subject peoples, and the inevitable clash of interests of Austria and Russia as they exerted more influence in this region.
The 1880s were, I think very troubling for Germany. The General Staff began to be the most powerful institution in the nation, eventually becoming the virtual government of germany in around 1905/06. Socialism increased as industrialism increased, and Bismarck, who was getting old, had no answer for socialist activities and demands other than to consider supression as a solution. His hold on the Foreign Office was strong, but not absolute, and there were career officials there who did not share his view in regard to Russia as a "friend." The army also had reasons to consider war against Russia before they became more powerful or accepted French proposals for an alliance. It did not happen then, but the opinion was there.
Wilhelm II felt the need to be his own man, and was a military "wannabe" who was influenced by the attitudes of the General Staff. When some internal administrative and political problem arose, he dismissed Bismarck in 1890, and the alliance with Russia was not renewed. If Bismarck had a diplomatic weakness it was the very complex alliances he constructed with all sorts of secret agreements and other deviousness. It was perhaps too complicated for succesors to deal with.
It is not so fashionable to dwell on the importance of personalities in history, but I feel it is important to emphasize that there was no one who could fill Bismarck's place in Germany. Love him, hate him or whatever, he was a titanic person...brilliant, opportunistic; cynical, crude and vindictive (especially at the Foreign Office), he was a titan replaced by a succession of educated, urbane and ineffectual dwarves.
I don't think that the colonial enterprise was a waste: Germany fought
two World Wars basically because they didn't have any colonies nor
anthing to substitute them and therefore they had bacground problems to
compete with the other major industrial powers, basically Britain and
the USA. Of course I am against colonialism, but in the context of
Capitalist powers fighting for resources it was about the only thing to
do.
This first placed Germany with Britain (against France) but later
placed Germany against Britain because they realized they needed to
subvert the colonial status quo in order to keep their growth (and
obviously Britain wouldn't let them do it).
The Balcans and the crumbling Ottoman Empire was just another colonial
adventure. True that Austria and Russia would almost surely clash but,
unless Germany had objective reasons to fear Russian activities it
should have acted as mediator and not taken sides. I think that the
Balcanic conflicts were more just a pretext for a war that was already
unavoidable.
And, as I see it, the failure to achieve the Anglo-German customs union
was much more crucial than any of the Balcanic conflicts. This is well
exemplified in how the EEC (now EU) has relaxed geopolitical tensions
up to the point of making Germany and France as best friends ever.
Something that before the treaty of Rome was just unthinkable. Now
Gremany and France (and other countries) share their respective
(national and neo-colonial) resources and therefore find no need
to quarrel about them.
Do you see the prelude to the First World War as more a competition for economic benefit rather than as a tide of nationalistic feeling that could not be resisted? Or, was it a combination of the two?
Other possible reasons?
I do not agree than the Balkans were a colonial adventure. From the 1870s to 1913, several new sovereign states (some artificially devised by the Powers [Albania]) were established. They were not colonies of the Powers, although they were influenced by them. The national populations of Serbia or Bulgaria would not have stood for 'colonial' status any more.
Bismarck's policy up until 1890 had more to do with Germany's eastern and western borders and security rather than projecting power into the Balkans. In 1914, Germany was dragged into the Balkans by her weaker ally Austria when there was no vital interest for Germany. Bismarck saw the danger and folly of having to face two powerful enemies, Russia east and France west, rather than trying to keep Russia as happy as possible and occupied in the Balkans where there were three possible adversaries for the Russians to contend with. (Turk/A-H/Brit.)
I agree that the conflict there was inevitable...regardless of diplomacy.
I always try to see the economic factors playing in any conflict. They
are always the most important ones, though not the most visible maybe.
Other important factors are geostrategical ones (military).
While I can agree that the Balcans were of small economic interest
(relatively: there are a few oilfields there and other raw materials
could also be used), the true colonial advanture was the partition of
Asian Turkey, the importance of this region can't be minimized as even
today is central in World Politics. Turkey was pro-German and had a lot
of German inversions... it was maybe the India of
Germany, and held a lot of potential, specially in form of oil
reserves. The British meanwhile were undermining Ottoman control in the
Persian Gulf by creating those funny tiny protectorates like Kuwait and
Bahrein and promoting Zionist plans for Palestine.
While this wasn't the spark that lit the fire, it undoubtedly helped to accumulate tensions.
Also Austria-Hungary wasn't that weak. It was maybe weak in its
internal structure (too many nations) but it was comparable to France
in national product and industrialization.
When I think of colonies I don't think necessarily in directly
controlled territories, dependant states with privileged relations can
serve colonialism equally well. This that we now call neo-colonialism
has always existed and it's not very "neo". Portugal and China depended
largely from Britain, Turkey eventually did depend from Germany, Iran
was a Russo-British condominon, Spain itself wasn't but a
Franco-British one and all Latin-America has for long been a British
first and USA protectorate later. The main difference between a
directly controlled colony and a dependant semi-colonial state is that
while in the second case a rival power can hope to overturn the status
quo through diplomatic means, in the first one that's almost
impossible.
So, while I still don't understand well why Germany throwed away the
pact with Russia, allowing it to approach the Entent, the rest of the
scheme is typically that of power struggle (largely economical) between
Britain and Germany.
Maju, this is interesting, and thanks for showing your interest.
On the issue of why Germany turned her back on Bismarck's policy of "friendship" with Russia, I'll try here.
Social and other realities had changed a lot since the 1870s. Bismarck, seeing his goals mostly achieved, and getting older, did not change much. His main fear was a "two front" conflict with France and Russia, as we have discussed. By the late 1880s, three important changes had taken place:
First, economic expansion had brought more wealth to Germany, the middle classes expanded and public opinion became more an issue than before. Bismarck, not being middle class, never quite recognized that only the more rural parts of eastern Prussia were any longer like Russia. Also, as the General Staff became more and more influential, new attitudes developed. About half of the officers on the GS were bourgeois, and they reflected their class attitudes as Bismarck reflected his.
Second, you have mentioned the drive for colonies (in Germany's case mostly as prestige) and overseas commercial interest. For Germany to realize "her place" among the world powers, as opposed to Europe, friendly relations with Britain were seen as more important than with Russia. Bismarck had feared Russia at Germany's back. The new attitude was that the army thought they could deal with that, and the Germans wanted Britain as their new friend. With Russian moves threatening the Mediterranean and Suez, and also Afghanistan and India, there was no way Germany could have it both ways....it was one or the other.
Also, Germany gained favor with Britain by more strongly, and openly, supporting Austria as a counter to Russia in the Balkans. It was all starting to be apparent that a big change was coming.
Third, the new kaiser was more in line with this thinking, colonial prestige, a navy like Britain, etc., and from 1888, it was doom for the old policy. In 1890, Bismarck was forced out, the treaty with Russia was not renewed, and Anglo-German relations were quite good.
I don't know if Britain was complacent about a German naval threat (that didn't really exist) at the time, but as the German naval buildup proceeded around 1900-1905, they realized the threat.....voila, raprochement with France, agreement with Russia...Triple Entente....world war caused by "some damn fool thing in the Balkans."
So you say it was Britain who actually caused Germany to change their
attitude towards Russia... and then, just after the Germans had sent
their privileged relationship with Russia to the trash can, they
decided that it was time to reallign with their former colonial rivals
France and Russia?
That's interesting; it adds to my scheme of all being mainly a B-G
conflict over European supremacy and control of semicolonial countries
(guess that Russia can be seen as one in many senses too). Still it
seem obvious that Germany did bad not working to restore their old
alliance with Russia, the only move that could have restabilished a
pro-German European balance. I wonder if this was caused by mere
incompetence on the German leadership or also because the Russian had
suddenly discovere where their true interests (and therefore loyalties)
laid with.
Do you think that Russia had objective interests in alligning with
Britain, same as France did once the colonial rush was over? They share
some simmilarities and it's clear that France did favor Russia as
balance to Germany as well...
(Note: you might be interested in playing by email a board game that
emulates this conflict: I'm trying to organize an AE game of Diplomacy.
If so, take a look at this topic in the General Gaming subforum).
Britain did not cause Germany to non-renew the treaty with Russia in 1890. Germany did that on her own. I do not think there was any movement toward a formal treaty with Britain, Germany gambling that what they were doing (disassociating with Russia; supporting Austria against Russian interests in the Balkans) would move Britain closer to Germany. They were quite mistaken. In 1892, the new governmant in Britain ended that dream. Thereafter, Germany was left with a possible two-front strategic problem, and their later naval build-up was seen by Britain as a grave threat.
The first "entente" partners were France and Russia in the earlier 1890s. Britain did not come into that picture until around 1908. Supposedly, if Germany had not violated Belgian neutrality, just across the English Channel, Britain would have had no cause for war, but I do not believe that she would have remained neutral for very long. The entente was an odd partnership on many levels.
Remember, by the time Britain became an entente member, Russia had been soundly defeated in the Far East by Japan (1904/05), revolutionary activity was percolating close to the surface (1905), and the Russians needed all the help they could get if they had to force the issue with Austria in the Balkans, and face Germany as well. Russian attention had been refocused on the Balkans after they were checked in Asia....Britain could hurt or help Russia, and it was better if they helped.
"No permanent friends; no permanent enemies...just permanent (mostly) vital national interests."
So the German error was allowing Russia to allign with France, the
British just were happy that the continental balance was kept one way
or the other, isn't it?
What is quite funny is how Italy doesn't seem to play any major role...
being as it was a large and relatively important country.
Italy joined the "Triple Alliance" (Germany, A-H, [later Turkey]) as an ally (not sure when). That could keep France occupied on her southern border and in the Mediterranean.
I would have to research the reasons that led Italy to join...like what was in it for them. You would think Italy surely would want to have stayed on good terms with Britain with all the strategic interests of Britain in the Med. There is a little project I guess.
Of course Italy was never a very committed member of that alliance....neutral in 1914, and on the "Entente" side in 1915.
The Italians have managed to wind up on the winning side more often than not.
What Wikipedia says basically is that Italy joined the alliance in 1882
(with no implications against Britain!) because they were upset at the
French intervention in Tunisia. Later, they added another clause saying
that they would not be obligued either against France (1902), emptying
the treaty of meaning. It also says that the traditional friction
against AH (that still had Italian minorities in its territory) was
decissive in placing Italy with the allies in 1915.
What was the main difference between Machtpolitik and Realpolitik?
I have not come across the term "Machtpolitik" before. In what context have you seen it used?
If my high school German doesn't fail me, Macht means might, strength or power, i.e. military power as in Wehrmacht (defense power).
Machtpolitik would seem to infer a policy, or the politics of military power. The term could be applied to any state's military policy vis a vis potential or current adversaries.
Realpolitik infers a policy, or the politics of realistic relations vis a vis both friends or adversaries; a frank and realistic assessment of interests and goals, and the sufficency of ways and means to attain desireable goals. Unfortunately, as in another thread, many goals are in conflict with others' interests.
Machtpolitik isn't really a special term like realpolitk. machtpolitik simply means the expansion and projection of power, but not only militarically but also politically and economically etc....
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