Topic: The Slavic element in Homer's epics Posted: 16-Jun-2008 at 10:52
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
Old Persian "morta"
What is it in modern Persian? Mahjūr مهجور! Because it is MRTOV in Macedonian! Got it MORTOS in Homer, MRTOV in Macedonian, MAHAJUR in Persian, NECROS in Greek!
Now checkmate it back!
And MORTE in Italian. Obviously Homer was Italian. Now is only the question, was he Genovese or maybe Roman?
And MORTE in Italian. Obviously Homer was Italian. Now is only the question, was he Genovese or maybe Roman?
That is very cute Styrbion! However, Italians or say Romans came later than the ancient Macedonians (linguistically and culturally very close to the Mycenaeans, and different from the Dorians) or for that matter, Homer. It is more logical to say that the Romans received the term from the Macedonians, who used it in the same form as Homer did, rather than otherwise.
My question is how the term reached Russian, Polish, Ukrainian languages? Was maybe Homer traveling across the steppes of Russia selling wine to them, and teaching them how to call their: мертвый (mertvi)?
Another example of such influence to the Romans by the Macedonians is the title of Emperors that the Macedonians had. ЦАР, or Czar has always been a title given to Macedonian Emperors from ancient times until Byzantium, and then Russians also took it!
Caesar is the Latin form of this title, that the Roman Emperor took in imitation to the Macedonians! They all admired the Macedonians, and despised them at the same time, for their glory!
"Camel/Kamila" comes fro Arabic "Jamal", Hebrew "Gamal", Assyrian "Gumla", Akkadian "Gammalu", ... the Avestan and Sanskrit word for Camel is "Ushtra", this is one of the oldest Indo-European words.
Οδεύω is exactly what I said...Again, Odyssey derives from Odysseus and his story but the name Odysseus is from Odyssomai which means "to be annoyed, to be irritated against, to hate (directional hate)".
As for the rest Petro, we'll take it tomorow. I have to go now. But remember... Check out what you write before, especially when you deal with matters you're getting a third person view. You don't know Greek and you know i'm a native speaker.
Synonyms with rather different etymologies I agree! However, the one in use in Greek is Dromos! Thanks for the tool it just confirmed what I said!
In Macedonian ODI means to GO! ODI SI means to GO AWAY! ODYSSEY means a journey! And it is not only since 200 years ago it seems! There is lots of politics in between so alternative approaches bring new light to the issue!
Ofcourse you did the mistake not to check what Οδός means...I told you to be carefull cause you do not know Greek to make such statements.
Οδός (fem) = road and is used mainly when refering to streets
Therefore, via egnatia in Greek was Εγνατία Οδός. The same is used for the periphery road of Athens which is Αττική Οδός. Google it and you'll see...
If you find a road sign in Greece using Dromos, it will be a great discovery...Read below...
Δρόμος (masc) is road again but is used in another way as well. You can use it to say for example "What's the way to Athens" which would be "Ποιος είναι ο δρόμος για την Αθήνα;".
As for Odyssey, me and other members have shown you the etymology which you completely ignored by reposting the same things. You saw with your own eyes, from which ancient Greek verb the name Odysseus/Odyssey is produced and what it means, as well as that the equation to journey was made during the 19th century based on the epos.
Oddysey means journey for a bit more than 100 years!! When are you gonna get it?
Well ODI SI means GO ON A JOURNEY for more than 3 millenia in Macedonian! Maybe you misinterpret the true meaning of Odyssey!
EODE-ODI SI-ODYSSEY!
I got it thanks!
why not ODI SEA, jurney in the sea,so you discover the slavic and english character of Homers poem in a row.
Seriously.
As Flipper said that word is still used in Greek (Οδός),but also in Albanian "udh",means path,journey,road, so i don't see how it can be of slavic origin.
5) The above sampling of texts, from both secular and religious authors, makes it abundantly clear that the Greek word oinos, like the Latin vinum and the English wine, was used as a generic term to refer either to fermented or unfermented grape juice.
I don't think English 'wine' is in the least bit relevant, but in fact wine in English is not necessarily made from grapes, but from any fruit (and even flowers and barley and root crops). But it is always fermented.
I don't think German 'Weinbrand' is necessarily made from grapes either, but I can't speak for the other Germanic languages.
I just want to say to you: you needn't do this!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!....this is enough: .
By the way Slayer can you specify why I needn't do this! What am I doing that is wrong? What is enough to you as a Slovak in this debate! Why have you taken a side! Aren't you interested in scientific research!
There are no sides in scientific research.
You aren't doing scientific research here, you're just juggling with phonemes and morphemes without too much regard for the difference.
why not ODI SEA, jurney in the sea,so you discover the slavic and english character of Homers poem in a row.
Seriously.
As Flipper said that word is still used in Greek (Οδός),but also in Albanian "udh",means path,journey,road, so i don't see how it can be of slavic origin.
and that is the beauty of indoeuropean languages sometime...
And MORTE in Italian. Obviously Homer was Italian. Now is only the question, was he Genovese or maybe Roman?
That is very cute Styrbion! However, Italians or say Romans came later than the ancient Macedonians (linguistically and culturally very close to the Mycenaeans, and different from the Dorians) or for that matter, Homer. It is more logical to say that the Romans received the term from the Macedonians, who used it in the same form as Homer did, rather than otherwise.
My question is how the term reached Russian, Polish, Ukrainian languages? Was maybe Homer traveling across the steppes of Russia selling wine to them, and teaching them how to call their: мертвый (mertvi)?
Have you ever heard of a little thing called 'Indo-European'?
In the meaning of 'murder' the root also appears in English, Old English, Old Norse, and germanic languages generally. It is even supposed to have got into French from Frankish (in this sense) so that 'meurtre' and 'mort' actually have different etymologies.
Another example of such influence to the Romans by the Macedonians is the title of Emperors that the Macedonians had. ЦАР, or Czar has always been a title given to Macedonian Emperors from ancient times until Byzantium, and then Russians also took it!
Caesar is the Latin form of this title, that the Roman Emperor took in imitation to the Macedonians! They all admired the Macedonians, and despised them at the same time, for their glory!
This is getting silly.
Tsar wasn't used in Slavonic until after the Roman Empire used it. It wasn't even a title in Latin originally but just a personal name. (Or are you claiminig Gaius Julius Caesar was Macedonian?)
Since your argument leads to all languages being Macedonian and Cyrus' leads to all languages being Persian, why don't you hust fight a duel over it or something?
Ofcourse you did the mistake not to check what Οδός means...I told you to be carefull cause you do not know Greek to make such statements.
Οδός (fem) = road and is used mainly when refering to streets
Therefore, via egnatia in Greek was Εγνατία Οδός. The same is used for the periphery road of Athens which is Αττική Οδός. Google it and you'll see...
If you find a road sign in Greece using Dromos, it will be a great discovery...Read below...
Δρόμος (masc) is road again but is used in another way as well. You can use it to say for example "What's the way to Athens" which would be "Ποιος είναι ο δρόμος για την Αθήνα;".
As for Odyssey, me and other members have shown you the etymology which you completely ignored by reposting the same things. You saw with your own eyes, from which ancient Greek verb the name Odysseus/Odyssey is produced and what it means, as well as that the equation to journey was made during the 19th century based on the epos.
That is true Flipper! I did check the meaning of Οδός! It surely means "STREET"! And it is not a mistake to assume that the term entered modern Dimotiki, via Katharevousa, originating from the earlier term "Οδός" deriving from Homer's Odyssey! In that case the term would defiinitely be associated to the Macedonian term "ODI", and the proto-Germanic "EODE", meaning "TO GO"! In that case the true meaning of the epic Odyssey is "TO GO ON A JOURNEY"! It seems that the 19th century scholars did not INVENT the meaning of the term Odyssey as you have suggested, but have used yet an older meaning of the root morpheme "Οδός" to determine the etymology of Homer's epic!
However, it is surprising to me to have the term Οδός used in modern Greek with the meaning of "street" when in Homer's epic it is associated with "a journey", when the term Δρόμος , which is more related to traveling, or going on a longer journey, is morphemically very different from the original term Οδός used in Homer's epic.
While in modern Macedonian the phrase: ОДИ СИ (ODI SI), still exists in its original use meaning "GO AWAY (on a journey)"!
So it is not wrong to say that the term Οδός comes from Homer's works, however it has lost its original meaning in Dimotiki, and has most probably been reintroduced into modern Greek, via Katharevousa, while in modern Macedonian, as well as other Slavic languages, has preserved its original form and meaning:
Russian: идти (IDTI), ходьба (HODBA), going (on a journey) Serbian: ХОДАТИ (hodati), to go, to walk
me and other members have shown you the etymology which you completely ignored by reposting the same things.
You and which other members Flipper! What sort of impression are you creating here? Are you in alliance with anyone against me or something? To what end I beg? I think everyone should discuss the matter based on personal convictions. What are yours?
That is true Flipper! I did check the meaning of Οδός! It surely means "STREET"! And it is not a mistake to assume that the term entered modern Dimotiki, via Katharevousa, originating from the earlier term "Οδός" deriving from Homer's Odyssey!
It is good to not assume to much in history, unless we use an "atopon" method.
To put an end to your katharevousa (which is btw not used and when it was it was used for formal documents not from common people) theory, see the development of the Greek language below.
The first picture below, is the original text, in koine, of the 2nd paragraph of Mathew, New Testament:
Translitteration:
Tou dhe Eisou gennithentos en Bithleem tis Ioudaeas en imeraes Irodou
tou basileos, edou magoi apo anatolon paragenonto eis Ierosolyma
legontes. Pou estin o techthis basileus ton Ioudaion;
The one next is the byzantine Greek or medieval version of the same text:
Translitteration: Afou dhe egennethe o Eisous en Bithleem tis Ioudaeas hepi
ton imeron Irodou tou basileos, edou magoi apo anatolon elthon eis
Ierosolyma legontas. Pou einai o gennethes basileus ton Ioudaion; This is the Demotic (modern) Greek translitteration:
Afou gennetheke o Eisous stin Bithleem tis Ioudeas, hepi ton imeron tou
basileos Irodi, elthan magoi apo tin anatole sta Ierosolyma legontas:
Pou einai o gennethes basilias ton ioudaion;
Second example...
The picture below is from Erotokritos, the poetic work of Vincenzos Kornaros, who lived in the early 16th century. It is the first lines of his book.
Translitteration: Tou kyklou ta gyrismata panevokatevaenou que tou trochou pores psila qui ores sta bathe pienou me tou kaerou t'allamata panapaimo den echou ma sto kalo qui es to kako peripatoun que trechou
Translitteration (Demotic/Modern): Tou kyklou ta gyrismata pou anevokatevaenoun que tou trochou pou ores psila que ores sta bathe pigenoun me tou kaerou t'allagmata pou anapausi den echoun ma sto kalo que sto kako perpatoun kai trechoun
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
In that case the term would defiinitely be associated to the Macedonian term "ODI", and the proto-Germanic "EODE", meaning "TO GO"! In that case the true meaning of the epic Odyssey is "TO GO ON A JOURNEY"! It seems that the 19th century scholars did not INVENT the meaning of the term Odyssey as you have suggested, but have used yet an older meaning of the root morpheme "Οδός" to determine the etymology of Homer's epic!
However, it is surprising to me to have the term Οδός used in modern
Greek with the meaning of "street" when in Homer's epic it is
associated with "a journey", when the term Δρόμος , which is more
related to traveling, or going on a longer journey, is morphemically
very different from the original term Οδός used in Homer's epic.
You and which other members Flipper! What sort of impression are you creating here? Are you in alliance with anyone against me or something? To what end I beg? I think everyone should discuss the matter based on personal convictions. What are yours?
Please... I'm not in the mood for drama and conspiracies or whatever you can call this.
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Posted: 16-Jun-2008 at 21:19
Originally posted by Petro Invictus
Originally posted by Slayertplsko
The fact you found a few words that are (maybe) used in Macedonian Slavic can mean that you have got it from Hellenic languages.
That is not an exception! However, how do you suggest we should explain the use of those FEW WORDS in other Slavic languages. Compare:
TO SEE:
Russian - видеть (VIDET)
Polish - WIDZIEĆ (VIDIETS)
Ukrainian - vyhliadaty (VIHLIADATI)
Croatian - VIDI
Macedonian - VIDE, VIDEN
Homeric - IDEON
Greek - VLEPO ?!?!
Sure you do not imply that Homer was traveling across Russia, selling wine to the Polish and singing his epics to the Ukrainian?
Latin: VIDEO, "he sees". so were the Romans Slavs?
They are all INDO-EUROPEAN LANGUAGES and the Proto-IE root for "see" was something like "WIDE-" You have just proved that your knowledge of lingustics is a big fat 0 and you are just spewing BS.
"Of the twenty-two civilizations that have appeared in history, nineteen of them collapsed when they reached the moral state the United States is in now."
Latin: VIDEO, "he sees". so were the Romans Slavs?
They are all INDO-EUROPEAN LANGUAGES and the Proto-IE root for "see" was something like "WIDE-" You have just proved that your knowledge of lingustics is a big fat 0 and you are just spewing BS.
Indeed Odin! What happened to the Greek VLEPO then? Is it Indo-European too?
It seems that your knowledge of ethics and good manners is on a very low scale mate. I am so sorry it pisses you off to read my posts. This is just a debate. Do not lose your tempers. After all you are the one "spewing" with obscene vocabulary.
If your language is the representative of the 'the moral state of the United States', then I must say you're giving out a very bad image of the morality of the state you represent.
It is good to not assume to much in history, unless we use an "atopon" method.
To put an end to your katharevousa (which is btw not used and when it was it was used for formal documents not from common people) theory, see the development of the Greek language below.
To put an end to MY Katharevousa. I thought it was YOURS! Why the drama Flipper? And it was in use in the schools that caused the school kids lose focus on what was their Greek language truly like.
"Until the seventies, the Greek language distinguished between Dimotiki, the colloquial language which was used in everyday discussions and the extremely formal and archaic Katharevousa,
which was used in more "educated" contexts, as in school, in court, in
law texts etc. Extreme Katharevousa was, in fact, nearly pure Ancient Greek, and as such, nearly completely unintellegible for children and adults without higher education. This was the reason for the Greek language question,
which was a heated dispute on which language form was to be the
official language of the state. This dispute was eventually settled,
and today the single language used in all texts is an educated variant
of Dimotiki, which was enriched by many expressions from Katharevousa. This variant is commonly called Modern Greek."
There you go. YOUR Katharevousa again signifies that a WHOLE LOT of the linguistic content from the texts you posted above were reintroduced to Modern Greek in a very artificial manner. Propaganda, was it? I guess so!
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=odyssey&searchmode=none "Figurative sense of "long, adventurous journey" is first recorded 1889"
That might be true for western literature. However the term οδος , and its relation to STREET in modern Greek, where people walk/go, proves that the root of the term Odyssey, means TO GO, as in EODE with proto-Germanic, and ODI with modern Macedonian.
Even the Bible used the term οδος closer to its original meaning, which is "long journey", than what modern Greek uses it today, referring to STREETS.
You wouldn't say that the Bible implied a rich or prosperous district in town with this passage., would you?
Then, if Odyssey means a journey, both in Homer's epic and in the western literature of the 19th century, and it meant a journey in the Bible too, then how come it became a STREET in modern Greek. Was it maybe the influence of Katharevousa that brought this into modern use, with a rather distorted meaning, from the original.
However, in modern Macedonia, the term ODI SI still means to go away (on a journey), and it is a phrasal verb we still use in as in Homer's time.
Please... I'm not in the mood for drama and manipulations or whatever you can call this feat of yours.
Have you ever heard of a little thing called 'Indo-European'?
In the meaning of 'murder' the root also appears in English, Old English, Old Norse, and germanic languages generally. It is even supposed to have got into French from Frankish (in this sense) so that 'meurtre' and 'mort' actually have different etymologies.
. . .
This is getting silly.
Tsar wasn't used in Slavonic until after the Roman Empire used it. It wasn't even a title in Latin originally but just a personal name. (Or are you claiminig Gaius Julius Caesar was Macedonian?)
Since your argument leads to all languages being Macedonian and Cyrus' leads to all languages being Persian, why don't you hust fight a duel over it or something?
WRONG gcle2003!
I do not say that all languages are Macedonian! I simply say that the term used in Homer's epics for dead, MORTOS, is of Indo-European origin, as Macedonian is, and the Greek term NEKROS is not! I am not saying that the Greek is not an Indo-European language. It does not belong to any other family of languages, and it is a synthetic language:
Synthetic languages are frequently contrasted with isolating languages.
It is more accurate to conceive of languages as existing on a
continuum, with strictly isolating (consistently one morpheme per word)
at one end and highly polysynthetic (in which a single word may contain as much information as an entire English sentence) at the other extreme. Synthetic languages tend to lie around the middle of this scale.
Example: Greek: υπερχοληστερολαίμια => "overmuch/high-cholesterol-blood+-ia(suffix)" meaning "hypercholesterolemia
Therefore, the Macedonian being the closest Indo-European analytical language to explain the use of some terms in Homer's epics, such as MORTO, IDEON, (F)OINOS, ODYSSEY, makes me conclude that maybe Homer's epics were initially transmitted in a proto-Slavic language, that has survived in modern Macedonian, before it was recorded in Classical times, when it was edited to suit the requirements of the audiences in Classical Greece.
Tsar wasn't used in Slavonic until after the Roman Empire used it. It
wasn't even a title in Latin originally but just a personal name. (Or
are you claiminig Gaius Julius Caesar was Macedonian?)
Caesar was not a personal name of the Emperor. You are being silly not to know this...
"The cognomen (plural: cognomina) was originally the third name of an Ancient Roman in the Roman naming convention. The cognomen started as a nickname, but lost that purpose when it became hereditary (and thus more like a family name)."
"The name Caesarprobably originated from a dialect of Latium which did not share the rhotacism of the Roman dialect"
"Originally, the title tsar (derived from Caesar) meant Emperor in the European medieval sense of the term, that is, a ruler who has the same rank as a Roman or Byzantine emperor (or, according to Byzantine ideology, the most elevated position adjacent to the one held by the Byzantine monarch) due to recognition by another emperor or a supreme ecclesiastical official (the Pope or the Ecumenical Patriarch)."
"As the Greek "basileus" was consistently rendered as "tsar" in Slavonic
translations of Greek texts, the dual meaning was transferred into Church Slavonic . Thus, "tsar" was not only used as an equivalent of
Latin "imperator" (in reference to the rulers of the Byzantine Empire,
the Holy Roman Empire and to native rulers) but was also used to refer
to Biblical rulers and ancient kings."
Now, this is very interesting, since the term first appeared in Caesar's time. We know that "Caesar defeated the Ptolemaic forces in 47 BC in the Battle of the Nile and installed Cleopatra as ruler, with whom he is suspected to have fathered a son, Caesarion."
There is another notion on Caesar's life:
"His biographer also gives the story that a crowd shouted to him "rex", the Latin word for king. Caesar replied, "I am Caesar, not Rex", a pun on the Roman name coming from the title.'
Now, in my opinion, Caesar took the title from the Ptolemy rulers of Egypt, who had already inherited it from the ancient Macedonians. Alexander the Great was known as Czar to the Macedonians. The very connection between his title and the title of his son Caesarion with Cleopatra, who was of Macedonian descent, shows that he had taken the title of the greatest Emperor before his time. After all he was infatuated with the dream to conquer the world, just as Alexander did.
After this the civil war took place, and he stated that he is not the Rex of Rome only, but the Caesar, meaning the Emperor of the world, just as Alexander was.
To this I have to add the folklore in Macedonia. There are numerous folk tales where the mentioning of OUR CZARS, is clearly stated in the stories as well as songs. In Macedonian folklore the name for Constantinople, and even Istanbul in Turkish times, was Czarigrad (Emperor's town). The Russians took over the title after they got Christianized by the Slavic teachers from Byzantium, which was ruled by Basil I Macedonian, who was of Armeno-Slavic origin, according to many sources, and according to Arabic sources purely Slavic.
There is another interesting fact regarding the title of Czar:
The “Collection of Macedonian and Bulgarian folk songs” from 1909 -1910
(according to Mihajlo Georgievski: “Slavic manuscripts in Macedonia,
Skopje, 1988, p. 161-173”), on page 68, there is a song mentioned where
the ancient-Macedonian Czar Karanus is mentioned. The first few lines
of this folk song go like this:
“Hey Old mountain, who will guide the army across you, when we do not have a proud Czar like the Czar Karanus…”
Although
the song has been recorded in Bulgarian, it is more than clear
according to content that it is a Macedonian song. There were 28 other
lines following the above mentioned.
A Macedonian folk song
about the Czar Karanus was mentioned by the Macedonian author Isaija
Mazovski in his “Memoirs” (Sophia 1922). He mentions that on
23.02.1867, he had visited the village of Sosalija (Enidze, Vardar) and
his relatives, the brothers Hadzi-Sekovi. That evening, a Jew merchant
was their guest too, who came to purchase wool from them. After
concluding all business, they set down to feast and sing Macedonian
songs! Then the brothers sang several very old songs, about the
Macedonian king Karanus and Soluna the girl! In regards to this,
Mazovski writes:
“Hearing the songs, the Jew in sheer surprise
asked them how could these songs be preserved since such an ancient
time! The brothers Hadzi-Sekovi told him that these songs were
preserved since ancient times, and were passed on from father to son
through generations. ‘These were songs of our fathers and grandfathers
that is how we learned to sing them too’.” (Quote by Gane Todorovski:
Veda Slovena, Skopje, 1979, p. 30).
This should tell you enough of where the term Czar comes from! You do not suppose our laymen singers here read Latin or any other language whatsoever, to hear about Caesar and the title they have been transmitting in these songs, for ages.
Since your argument leads to all languages being Macedonian and Cyrus' leads to all languages being Persian, why don't you hust fight a duel over it or something?
gcle2003, try to expand your mind, your speaking language is not equal to all languages of the world, this won't not an insult to English or German language, if it is proved Persian or Macedonian is older than them and can be the ancestor of them.
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