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edgewaters
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Topic: Against Oblivion or the Denazification of the Mind Posted: 28-Jun-2007 at 06:14 |
Originally posted by elenos
<p ="Msonormal">I stand by what I said. A totalitarian state is where many
of mechanisms of good government have been disabled. |
Yes, but it's a state nonetheless.
You said , "It is debatable that under Hitler the German people had a state."
The definition of a state has nothing to do with the mechanisms of good government. It may have them, it may not.
Edited by edgewaters - 28-Jun-2007 at 06:25
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 00:13 |
I did try to further refine my meaning by stating so far as jurisprudence is concerned. Give me another definition of a state and I may probably agree with. What structures of state Hitler had were trains running on time, a people's car and all that sort of thing.
I was thinking more deeply, along the lines of the Todt Organization, a German company that used slave labor forbidden under international laws of the time, Legal in Germany because the Nazis rewrote the state laws to suit themselves and their filthy agenda. Many ordinary civilians were hung for speaking out against this travesty of their internal justice.
Edited by elenos - 03-Jul-2007 at 00:18
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elenos
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JanusRook
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 03:21 |
eople seem to expect the next Hitler that shows up will be a sweaty
German madman with a pitchfork. He'll more likely be a respectable
gentleman in a nice suit, a popular politician both at home and abroad,
just like he was last time. In this age, he'll probably also be a
master of television media, have a slick PR firm with catchy slogans
and colourful billboards, and a strong Internet following and presence.
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Economic Communist, Political Progressive, Social Conservative.
Unless otherwise noted source is wiki.
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 03:34 |
A female dictator? Hmm, I don't remember one before, perhaps someone may suggest a historical lady.
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elenos
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JanusRook
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 04:01 |
The purpose of this example is not to demonize Britain or anyone else,
but it is ridculous to expect only the Germans to be sorry for their
crimes and conviniently forget others. Genocides have occured both
before and after. The German or the Japanese should not singled out, or
Jews, Roma, Poles, or Bengalis be singled out for special status as
victims.
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Under international law to
change the system of jurisprudence to suit individual interests is to nullify the
legality of state rulings. |
So.....Saudi Arabia is not a state? Or Thailand? Or Cuba?
. Hitler introduced a code of laws that for instance made
the killing of anyone that stood against the Nazi party as legal; there was no
need for those who did to go to trial
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In many countries treason during wartime is considered punishable by the death penalty. Did you know that in the United States, it was considered punishable with imprisonment to have any connections to the communist party. Does this mean that the American government in violation of international law of the time voided it's status as a state. Heck how about the internment camps the US used against it's own Japanese-German-Italian citizens. Did that void it's right to be recognized as a state?
Under such circumstances no other country could rightfully recognize the
Nazi Party as a legal entity
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1. TURKISH-GERMAN FRIENDSHIP TREATY, SIGNED IN
ANKARA June 18, 1941
2. Pact Between the Axis Powers Barring a Separate Peace with the United States or Great Britain Dec 11, 1941 3. German-Soviet Cooperation, October 2, 1939 - May 29, 1940
Give me another definition of a state and I may probably agree with |
A state is a political association with effective dominion over a geographic area
I was thinking more deeply, along the lines of the Todt Organization, a
German company that used slave labor forbidden under international
laws of the time,
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I would like to know which international laws you specify that forbade slave labor in other countries? Usually the protocol for international law are treaties that a nation agrees to uphold. The only international body that existed as a forum for international law, was the League of Nations at that time. And Germany had left the league in 1933. The League of Nations did call for the abolition of slavery, and as such created a Slavery Commission to oversee this purpose. This led to a slavery convention and the members of the League signed it in 1926, however this was the year that Germany joined the league and thus did not participate in the Slavery Commission prior to the convention. Thus the slavery conventions rulings were only inherently approved of by the german government at the time. The only other mentioned parts of slavery in the LoN is the Covenant of Nations signed in 1924 which states:
(a) will endeavour to secure and maintain fair and humane conditions of
labour for men, women, and children, both in their own countries and
in all countries to which their commercial and industrial relations
extend, and for that purpose will establish and maintain the
necessary international organisations;
(b) undertake to secure just treatment of the native inhabitants of
territories under their control; |
This was also inherently signed, and effectively voided when Hitler left the LoN, which as ruler of a sovereign nation was his right to do so. Therefore at that point Germany was not subject to the LoN laws, and unless you can show me any treaties Germany signed after 1933 that it stated it would not have slavery. Then they didn't break any international laws....unless you mean laws that Germany chose not to agree to.
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Economic Communist, Political Progressive, Social Conservative.
Unless otherwise noted source is wiki.
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 06:33 |
You bring up a lot of interesting points JanusRook. Remember
I did say jurisprudence, meaning the philosophy of law that civilized nations
uphold. What that fully means takes a long time to consider, like all of
philosophy understanding does not come overnight. This invisible network of law
can be non-binding as you point out, but those who agree to it have become
leading nations of the world. The club, so to speak.
Inventions of convenience (electricity, telephone, etc)
travel around the world as do rulings in common law, but this transfer of
justice is an invisible process. In my opinion these shared laws mature and
grow over time and make the basis of a modern state, whatever the country. Again
in my opinion those that cut ties with this network put themselves outside the
proper rule of law and modern history validates this point.
Where did this sort of this thing start? In India,
Greece and carried
on by Rome. (Ancient Law by Henry
Maine is a major text book on the subject). The problem always has been what
type of laws cover the most people and is the most effective over the longest
period of time. The system of jurisprudence became lost after the collapse of Rome,
remained lost until the Renaissance, and has steadily developed ever since.
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elenos
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edgewaters
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 08:54 |
Originally posted by elenos
Give me another definition of a state and I may probably agree with.
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A state is just the sovereign civil government of a single country. It's different from a country or a nation because nations don't necessarily have a country and countries don't necessarily have a government, or its government may not have sovereignty over civil affairs (eg colonies or territories).
Examples of states include everything from Neolithic city-states ruled by priest-kings in ancient Mesopotamia to the governments of modern democracies.
US usage of the term is a legacy from its early history, under the Articles of Confederation: "Each state retains its sovereignty, freedom, and independence, and every power, jurisdiction, and right"
US "states" ceased to be states with the adoptation of the US Constitution in 1788.
Countries like Australia using the term for subnational entities are also using the term as a historical legacy.
Edited by edgewaters - 03-Jul-2007 at 09:05
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 09:29 |
Alright, I'll agree with you. Anyway, to get back on topic, I think "denazification of the of the mind" begins by understanding what a responsible state should provide and not rely on mickey mouse definitions that ignore the rule of law.
Edited by elenos - 03-Jul-2007 at 09:30
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elenos
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edgewaters
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 16:20 |
Originally posted by elenos
I think "denazification of the of the mind" begins by understanding what a responsible state should provide |
Peace, order, and good government of course. Nothing more, nothing less.
Government should be just what the word says. It has the same function in a country that a governor in an engine has in that system; it keeps things running smoothly. It shouldn't be there to promote any other sort of agenda, and should steer clear of populism and demagoguery, which were the twin engines of Nazi support.
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Jul-2007 at 21:56 |
One Germany! One Fatherland! One Fuhrer! Surely this has to be the only way to peace, order and good government?
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elenos
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edgewaters
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Posted: 04-Jul-2007 at 19:39 |
Originally posted by elenos
One Germany! One Fatherland! One Fuhrer! Surely this has to be the only way to peace, order and good government? |
Populism and demagoguery are the way to war, chaos, and bad government.
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elenos
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Posted: 05-Jul-2007 at 20:53 |
Don't knock it! Slogans worked at the time and they still do. Hey, I have a great one. 'There is only one way, MY WAY!"
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elenos
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