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The Farooshiym "Persian" Gk. Pharisee
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mojobadshah View Drop Down
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Posts: 382 		  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: The Farooshiym "Persian" Gk. Pharisee
    Posted: 17-Apr-2013 at 21:29
I know that there have been serious studies on the etymological connection between the eponyms Persian and Pharisee, but what is the source for Farooshiym "Persian" Gk. Pharisee?  It's posted all over the internet. 
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Cyrus Shahmiri View Drop Down
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Posts: 6240 		  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Apr-2013 at 10:32
I really doubt about it, there is no sound between "r" and "s" in the name of Persians in the different languages, and there is no reason that "p" sound is changed to "f" in the Hebrew language.
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Posts: 869 		  Quote Baal Melqart Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Apr-2013 at 16:08

True, Hebrew words adopted from Persian never change the 'p' into 'f' like Pardes which is adopted from the Persian word Pardiz. Plus, there is no possible connection between Persians and Pharisees...
Timidi mater non flet
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Posts: 382 		  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Apr-2013 at 20:34
But did you guys know about this? The epyonym Pharisee is derived from the Aramaic Pārsāh/*Parsāh “Persian” or “Persianiser”?  And there is a connection between the Persians and the Pharisees ideologically.  As I understand it the Pharisees were Zoroastrianized Jews.  They adopted hygienic practices, the belief in free will, immortality of the soul, the resurrection of the body, a pantheon of angels, future retribution, and a future-deliverer to come in the last days of the world.  


   

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mojobadshah View Drop Down
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Posts: 382 		  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Apr-2013 at 20:36
The Saducees didn't adopt the aforsaid practices and beliefs from the Zoroastrians.  The kept strictly to the Torah or Pentatuch only. 
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Posts: 382 		  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Apr-2013 at 20:53
Pars became Fars in Arabic, why wouldn't "p" have become "f" in Aramaic or Hebrew?
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Posts: 869 		  Quote Baal Melqart Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-Apr-2013 at 11:20
Originally posted by mojobadshah

The Saducees didn't adopt the aforsaid practices and beliefs from the Zoroastrians.  The kept strictly to the Torah or Pentatuch only. 


Saducees still believed in a pantheon of angels and the coming of a messiah. But yes, they rejected the immortality of the soul and resurrection.


As to your comment that ''p'' can become ''f'', you are providing an example in Arabic whilst we're talking about words adapted from Persian to Aramaic/Hebrew.
Timidi mater non flet
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Posts: 382 		  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-Apr-2013 at 20:16
I posted the question regarding the p > ph shift on a word forum and this is the answer I got:  The representation of Hebrew or Aramaic /p/ by Greek φ /ph/ is the norm in the Septuagint and New Testament.  
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