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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Frankreich & Allemagne
    Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 10:15
 
Originally posted by Temujin

Originally posted by gcle2003

I put that in to establish that in the third century the Alamanni were already across the upper Rhine, and therefore in a position to move downstream well before the 5th century. A couple of hundred kilometres isn't much over two hundred years.


yeah? so why didn't they moved east or whatever? 100km is a lot unless you're on a migration spree or whatever you assume in the context of the great migrations. you pointed to now reasonable arguemtn why they shoudl move northwards from Alsace, it would have eben more plausible to move eastwards along the Danube if anyhting.
I didn't say they only moved north along the Rhine and/or west across it. What they did was spread out until someone stopped them: the Burgundians (see below) to the west, various tribes - Bavarians, Goths, Lombards to the east, the Romans and then the Goths to the south, and the Franks to the north. 

But that is exactly what I have been saying. They crossed the middle Rhine into historic Luxembourg (and throughout I've been saying historic Luxembourg, not modern Luxembourg). I never claimed they were native to the area - that would be silly. My whole point is that they migrated into it - either across the middle Rhine (as this quotation says, and you now accept) or downstream from Alsace - before being pushed out by the Franks.


no, where did i imply that?
You wrote:
Originally posted by Temujin

the second scan even mentions: "die [Alemannen] vom Ober- und Mittelrhein nach Gallien vordrangen."  = they [Alemanni] entered Gallia from the upper and middle rhine. so it confirms that they crossed the rhine into modern Luxemburg, because Gallia = west of the rhine.
That is accepting that they crossed the middle Rhine not just the upper Rhine.
 
They are certainly known to have crossed as far downstream as Mainz (in 406 if on no other occasion).
 

Alemanni presence in Alsace is established fact by archeaology, language & customs of the people there, Alemanni presence deeper in central France and Luxemburg etc is only from literary sources which implies that the impact was not deep = no occupation other than militarily.
There are certainly historical records of Alamanni presence in the Moselle valley, the Lorraine plateau and so on, though I wouldn't call that 'deeper in central France'. It's all on the edge of France, and indeed at times outside it. And where there is military presence there is usually to some degree (certainly in the time of the mass migrations) settlement. As far as language is concerned I don't think there are any Gaulish traces left in Ltzebuergesch but that doesn't mean present Luxembourg doesn't have a considerable Gaulish ancestry (as the English have Celtic ancestry).
 
For that matter how many people in Lombardy grow up speaking German?


You mean this one:
 
 
(I got this far, but I'm getting 'access denied' on trying to insert the map. it's at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap4.jpg )
If you mean this one I accept it shows Burgundians AND Alamanni in the area, which is true at the outset of the 5th century, though the Burgundians were just passing through on their way to southern Gaul (as the dates on the map indicate).
 
What was your point?
 
Also take a look at the series of maps of the Frankish areas on p120, which are at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap5.jpg.
Not until 486 do they show the Franks in control of the area in question - at 460 they aren't there yet, which is in accord with what I've said. Granted these maps don't show who WAS in the area, but the Burgundians are - correctly - shown far to the south already, and who else was there around?
 
Granted maps on this scale aren't going to be very accurate, when they all point to more or less the same situation it has to mean something. The same is true of the other sources I've given you. They may be inaccurate or untrustworthy and they may not prove anything absolutely, but they all add up to a probability, especially when there is no evidence at all that contradicts them.
 


no i meant the Hun map on page 112.
That doesn't show anybody in the area. 
 
anyways, the area in question seems clearly Frankish to me, if anything. check the map on page 120, which shows the area of Trier as Frankish already.
As I already pointed out (I also gave the map) that was in 480. From the beginning I've pointed out that the Franks had control of Trier by then. The same map shows no Franks there in 460.
 
Part of my point all along is that when the Franks did take control, they did not actually eliminate all the Alamanni living there (or for that matter the Treveri and other Gauls who were still around).
 
 it is obvious that there is a grey area between the Franks and Alemanni. the blank area does in no way imply that it was occupied by Alemanni, whats the evidence for that? with what tribes would you fill the rest of the blank areas?
Depends which other blank areas you are talking about. In this specific blank area I don't think there's much other choice. (For Burgundians and others see below.)


you say that it is unlikely that the Alemanni didn't went there within 200 years. i say it is unlikely that the Alemanni went there and just mixed with the Romano-Gallic population established there since ~500 years. if there was any temporary Alemanni occupation of the area it doesn't validate to say that modern Luxemburgers are Franks and Alemanni.
Well, the Alamanni, to say nothing of the Franks, Burgundians, Visigoths and Vandals (etc), were busily doing that elsewhere.
 
I'd even accept that the passing Burgundians and Vandals had some effect on the ancestry of the population of Luxembourg. So it goes.

and about Burgundians. it is said that Worms was their capital, the other map i posted shows Worms in Alemanni control. what are we supposed to believe? again and again and again: why do you say "the Burgundians just passed through" but keep going on saying the Alemanni migrated there?? it is obvious the Burgundians occupied an area in between the Franks and Alemanni before they were resettled in Gallia as Foederati, which explains the grey area in between the two.
 
Within less than a century, the Burgundians, a small tribe compared to the Alamanni, moved from the Vistula basin to the Rhone and southern France. They were established in the Worms area for about 20-30 years at the turn of the century (in the middle of the period of Alamanni occupation there.) That's what I meant by they 'passed through'. The Vandals had already done the same thing. The Vandals were moving even faster, since they crossed the frozen Rhine in 406 and in 409 were already crossing the Pyrenees.
 
i understand the battle of Zlpich as a contest for control of this area, which the Franks won, which is why the area is Frankish and not Alemanni.
 
The point is that up until the late 5th century the Alamanni were undoubtedly established
(a) on the right bank of the Rhine up to more or less the confluence of the Moselle and the Rhine.
(b) on the left bank of the Rhine in modern Alsace (probably also in modern Lorraine, though that may be more disputable)
(c) on the left bank of the Rhine west of Mainz.
In addition they were finally defeated by the Franks at modern Zlpich which is as far north as Lige and Aachen.
 
Plot those areas on a map and you get Alamanni presence in a big arc with a hole in the middle including the areas that have formed historic Luxembourg, at a time when no other major Germanic tribe was in the area. It seems to me likely to the point of obvious that the Alamanni would have filled the gap.
 
Incidentally I didn't know the Pennsylvania Dutch also claimed mixed descent from the Alamanni and the Franks.
Note the references to Lorraine as well as Alsace.
 
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 12:16
Originally posted by Chilbudios

In ancient times Ukraine was more probably inhabited by people speaking Slavic and Iranian languages than Turkic.


nonono, the area of Ukriane that we talk about was not Slavic until after medieval times, i'm not talkign about western and northern ukriane but south and east ukraine. plus, we also know modern Kazakhstan was inhabited by Iranic Sakas but nowadays they are clearly Turkic.

Such populations like the Sarmathians are mentioned until the late Empire. Some of the later Turkic elements which got into Ukraine though survived even until today, as you can see the Gagauz in the southern Moldova and the southwestern Ukraine. Their survival as an enclave, their Christian religion, rather suggests it is about assimilation.


the only surviving Iranians are the Alans which survived in the Caucasus.

Also to assimilation point the archaeological evidence, when it reveals no signs of massive large-scale destructions on the contrary, in many settlements continuous habitation.


those are individual examples, it's well known that Greeks lived in cities in the Crimea and otehr blakc sea towns until the 19th century at least, but i'm talkign about the whoel area as such. i mean Lemberg/L'viv was a city inhabited by Poles but Galicia as a whole was inhabited by Ukrainians.

Then the history brings another argument. It is hard to believe that the transition from Iranian speaking populations to Slavic and Turkic speaking populations was done through mass extermination or displacement as we know no strong centralized political body to be capable of such an action on a wide scale at the times of the presumed event, not to say that we don't have any evidence of an ideology or a problem that would justify the action. Killing/banishing just for the sake of it, it doesn't seem a plausible hypothesis.
 


what are you talking about? many Steppe tribes vanished from history almost without trace, the Ukrainian/south Russian steppe was always a transition point for many tribes. you cannot generalize history like that. i mean why did some tribes made a lasting impression and others dissappeared almost without a trace? those events have to be carefully analized and examined. the pontic steppe was for most historical time onyl sparsely populated and steppe tribes retreat to other areas when being hard pressed rather than to submit to the newcomer. but we also have examples of assimilation and integration of nomads with urban popualtion, but you cannot draw a general rule from that. neither Iranians and Turkic people made a lasting impression on the pontic steppe, only in more recent times, under ekaterina II of russia was the pontic steppe populated by slavic and otehr settlers, i guess you heard of the famous Potemkins villages before.


Edited by Temujin - 15-Sep-2007 at 12:17
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 11:59
Originally posted by gcle2003

I put that in to establish that in the third century the Alamanni were already across the upper Rhine, and therefore in a position to move downstream well before the 5th century. A couple of hundred kilometres isn't much over two hundred years.




yeah? so why didn't they moved east or whatever? 100km is a lot unless you're on a migration spree or whatever you assume in the context of the great migrations. you pointed to now reasonable arguemtn why they shoudl move northwards from Alsace, it would have eben more plausible to move eastwards along the Danube if anyhting.



But that is exactly what I have been saying. They crossed the middle Rhine into historic Luxembourg (and throughout I've been saying historic Luxembourg, not modern Luxembourg). I never claimed they were native to the area - that would be silly. My whole point is that they migrated into it - either across the middle Rhine (as this quotation says, and you now accept) or downstream from Alsace - before being pushed out by the Franks.




no, where did i imply that? Alemanni presence in Alsace is established fact by archeaology, language & customs of the people there, Alemanni presence deeper in central France and Luxemburg etc is only from literary sources which implies that the impact was not deep = no occupation other than militarily.



You mean this one:
 
 
(I got this far, but I'm getting 'access denied' on trying to insert the map. it's at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap4.jpg )
If you mean this one I accept it shows Burgundians AND Alamanni in the area, which is true at the outset of the 5th century, though the Burgundians were just passing through on their way to southern Gaul (as the dates on the map indicate).
 
What was your point?
 
Also take a look at the series of maps of the Frankish areas on p120, which are at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap5.jpg.
Not until 486 do they show the Franks in control of the area in question - at 460 they aren't there yet, which is in accord with what I've said. Granted these maps don't show who WAS in the area, but the Burgundians are - correctly - shown far to the south already, and who else was there around?
 
Granted maps on this scale aren't going to be very accurate, when they all point to more or less the same situation it has to mean something. The same is true of the other sources I've given you. They may be inaccurate or untrustworthy and they may not prove anything absolutely, but they all add up to a probability, especially when there is no evidence at all that contradicts them.
 
 
 
 


no i meant the Hun map on page 112. anyways, the area in question seems clearly Frankish to me, if anything. check the map on page 120, which shows the area of Trier as Frankish already. it is obvious that there is a grey area between the Franks and Alemanni. the blank area does in no way imply that it was occupied by Alemanni, whats the evidence for that? with what tribes would you fill the rest of the blank areas?

you say that it is unlikely that the Alemanni didn't went there within 200 years. i say it is unlikely that the Alemanni went there and just mixed with the Romano-Gallic population established there since ~500 years. if there was any temporary Alemanni occupation of the area it doesn't validate to say that modern Luxemburgers are Franks and Alemanni.

and about Burgundians. it is said that Worms was their capital, the other map i posted shows Worms in Alemanni control. what are we supposed to believe? again and again and again: why do you say "the Burgundians just passed through" but keep going on saying the Alemanni migrated there?? it is obvious the Burgundians occupied an area in between the Franks and Alemanni before they were resettled in Gallia as Foederati, which explains the grey area in between the two. i understand the battle of Zlpich as a contest for control of this area, which the Franks won, which is why the area is Frankish and not Alemanni.


Edited by Temujin - 15-Sep-2007 at 12:18
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 07:27
because Ukraine is overhwelmignly Slavic while it was inhabited by Turkic tribes for centuries. look at the Crimean Khanate which alone was really long time around there and even nowadays the Turkic element of the Crimea is really negligable.
 In ancient times Ukraine was more probably inhabited by people speaking Slavic and Iranian languages than Turkic. Such populations like the Sarmathians are mentioned until the late Empire. Some of the later Turkic elements which got into Ukraine though survived even until today, as you can see the Gagauz in the southern Moldova and the southwestern Ukraine. Their survival as an enclave, their Christian religion, rather suggests it is about assimilation.
Also to assimilation point the archaeological evidence, when it reveals no signs of massive large-scale destructions on the contrary, in many settlements continuous habitation.
Then the history brings another argument. It is hard to believe that the transition from Iranian speaking populations to Slavic and Turkic speaking populations was done through mass extermination or displacement as we know no strong centralized political body to be capable of such an action on a wide scale at the times of the presumed event, not to say that we don't have any evidence of an ideology or a problem that would justify the action. Killing/banishing just for the sake of it, it doesn't seem a plausible hypothesis.
 
 


Edited by Chilbudios - 15-Sep-2007 at 07:28
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 06:44
 
Originally posted by Temujin

none of the (German) passages you posted say anything about the settlements in modern Luxemburg. "nahmen Elsa (Alsace), Schweiz (Switzerland) und das Voralpenland (=southwest germany) in Besitz". no mention of Saar and Moselle area.
I put that in to establish that in the third century the Alamanni were already across the upper Rhine, and therefore in a position to move downstream well before the 5th century. A couple of hundred kilometres isn't much over two hundred years.
 
the second scan even mentions: "die [Alemannen] vom Ober- und Mittelrhein nach Gallien vordrangen."  = they [Alemanni] entered Gallia from the upper and middle rhine. so it confirms that they crossed the rhine into modern Luxemburg, because Gallia = west of the rhine. that prooves they were not native to the area.
But that is exactly what I have been saying. They crossed the middle Rhine into historic Luxembourg (and throughout I've been saying historic Luxembourg, not modern Luxembourg). I never claimed they were native to the area - that would be silly. My whole point is that they migrated into it - either across the middle Rhine (as this quotation says, and you now accept) or downstream from Alsace - before being pushed out by the Franks.

I also have the Penguin Atlas, but it's not always accurate, please post the maps of the Hun empire which includes all of Eastern Europe as a reference for reliability...
You mean this one:
 
 
(I got this far, but I'm getting 'access denied' on trying to insert the map. it's at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap4.jpg )
If you mean this one I accept it shows Burgundians AND Alamanni in the area, which is true at the outset of the 5th century, though the Burgundians were just passing through on their way to southern Gaul (as the dates on the map indicate).
 
What was your point?
 
Also take a look at the series of maps of the Frankish areas on p120, which are at http://www.cleverley.org/images/scannedmap5.jpg.
Not until 486 do they show the Franks in control of the area in question - at 460 they aren't there yet, which is in accord with what I've said. Granted these maps don't show who WAS in the area, but the Burgundians are - correctly - shown far to the south already, and who else was there around?
 
Granted maps on this scale aren't going to be very accurate, when they all point to more or less the same situation it has to mean something. The same is true of the other sources I've given you. They may be inaccurate or untrustworthy and they may not prove anything absolutely, but they all add up to a probability, especially when there is no evidence at all that contradicts them.
 
 
 
 
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 17:07
none of the (German) passages you posted say anything about the settlements in modern Luxemburg. "nahmen Elsa (Alsace), Schweiz (Switzerland) und das Voralpenland (=southwest germany) in Besitz". no mention of Saar and Moselle area. the second scan even mentions: "die [Alemannen] vom Ober- und Mittelrhein nach Gallien vordrangen."  = they [Alemanni] entered Gallia from the upper and middle rhine. so it confirms that they crossed the rhine into modern Luxemburg, because Gallia = west of the rhine. that prooves they were not native to the area.

I also have the Penguin Atlas, but it's not always accurate, please post the maps of the Hun empire which includes all of Eastern Europe as a reference for reliability...
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 15:32
Some odds and ends:
Another not irrelevant link:
Alamanni: early on was part of the Suebian federation of Germanic tribes, along with the Marcomanni, Hermunduri and Quadi. A germanic tribe springing "from their Elbian homelands". The Aleman horsemen were first sighted by the Romans in 213 AD. In 233 AD they overran the empty Roman limes forts, reached the Saar and Moselle Rivers in the west and Lake Constance in the south. Also settled in the Middle Elbe (time?). Aleman raids in 242, 253, 254 AD. Also 259, 260 AD in Raetia and Mediolanum (Milan). Franks defeated the Alemans in 496 or 497 AD at Tolbiacum/Zuelpich. Coupled with Franks expansion in the sixth century AD, forced the Alemanni into territory between Alsace in the wet and the River Lech in the east; to the south they crossed the Rhine and Lake Constance, into Alpine river valleys. There is a huge Aleman cemetery at Schretzheim. Alemannic place names ending in ingen, heim, statt and weil were settled between the 5th-7th centuries AD, while endings in dorf, stetten, hifen, weiler, bach, beuren, hausen, wang and felden were founded after 700 AD [Source: "Tools, Weapons..." by Herbert Schutz (2001 Brill Publ.) at pages 54-61].
Note: Saar and Moselle.
 
Some reason for Luxembourgers believing what they do might be these quotes from a standard textbook in schools here.
 
 
 
(I thought scanning would be easier than copying. Boy was I wrong.)
 
While its a standard textbook here, it's not a Luxembourg textbook. It's published by Verlag Moritz Diesterweg of Frankfurt, Berlin and Munich. ( http://www.diesterweg.de/ )
 
Finally a couple of maps from the Penguin Atlas of World History.
 
 
 
It seems to me totally incredible that the Alamanni, in occupation of the right bank of the middle Rhine, wouldn't crosss it in a century or so, and nor would they move downstream from their occupied territory on the left bank.
 
Until of course they were stopped by the Franks.
 
Why would that stretch of the left bank be left alone by the migrating Germans?
 
I also can't see why on earth anyone would somehow find it insulting to the Alamanni to say that they did move into the Lorraine plateau and the Moselle valley, if it's OK for them to have moved into Alsace.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 12:59
because Ukraine is overhwelmignly Slavic while it was inhabited by Turkic tribes for centuries. look at the Crimean Khanate which alone was really long time around there and even nowadays the Turkic element of the Crimea is really negligable.
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 12:55
tell that to the Steppe tribes that inhabited modern Ukriane & Southern Russia or to the natives of New England...i'm really not in the mood in further debatting about your inaccurate non-violent perception of history...
Let's speak about Ukraine, how do you know it was displacement and not assimilation?
I don't think it's about a non-violent history, but a history with more complex phenomena, where populations are not individuals or heroes or other mythological characters which fight each other, one dies and one lives further to fight other challanges.
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 12:49
i'm taking this serious because 1. i AM Swabian-Alemannic and 2. there are some freaks on the web who claim stuff like Alemanni at one point unified all of Germany (German tribes) under Arminius (Hermann as they call him inaccurately) and other nationalist stuff like that. btw, today, there are still Franks & Alemanni today. something like German as an ethnical term does not exist in fact (as opposed to French). modern Germany was never subject to a single ruler and centralized in the same way as France until the 3. Reich. of course there was a "german unification movement" in the 19th century, which should however more accurately be called pan-german nationalists. of course if i say i'm alemanni that doesn't mean i'm pure allemanni because we have hard evidence of Celtic, Roman and Alemanni presence here, as opposed to Luxemburg.

Originally posted by gcle2003

Except that pretty well everywhere when a people migrate, some of them stay behind. Even when a population is 'displaced' or 'expelled' its rare for complete ethnic cleansing to take place.


tell that to the Steppe tribes that inhabited modern Ukriane & Southern Russia or to the natives of New England...i'm really not in the mood in further debatting about your inaccurate non-violent perception of history...
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 12:23
gcle, though I started my contribution in this thread by correcting some aspects of the conquest of Trier by Franks, I am not writing here especially to disagree, but also to build a perspective based on my knowledge and understanding and in dialogue also to enlarge it from what other people write.
I apologize for the confusion of using the same "early Middle Ages" syntagms but with slightly different meanings. I have used it to avoid repeating a text like "end of 5th, beginning of 6th century". But the paper I've linked obviously refers vaguely to the entire period, leaving only the common sense to imagine the transition occuring in the linguistical "conquest" of the Germanic populations. The start is however the beginning of the 5th century, as border (1) is explicitely said to be the Roman limes and we know when it fell.
 
Franks is rather a political name than an actual ethnonym. Like many other invading armies their numbers were in minority comparing with the populations inhabiting the territories they conquered. In the 5th century and even during Clovis they were ruled by several kings, with relatively small armies (few thousands probably - Peter Brown says that in Reims, Clovis brought his army of about 3000 men to get Christianized and these men represented the "Frankish nation", he also adds that some of them could have been ex-Romans finding a better future as soldiers in some barbarian king's service than peasants working the land). Also their relative quick expansion to Loire, and after that in Burgundy and Aquitaine obviously made this warring elite suddenly controlling quite a large territory. Their assimilation was inevitable.
 
Temujin, we don't find anyone in Europe being now Gaul, Frankish, Alemann, Roman or anything but French, German, Luxemburger, etc. Also this colonization you're emphasizing it's not such a big deal, it's just people willing to settle. The Hunnic army probably left some remnants along their long campaign, but their army, like most armies in that time was actually ethnical mixed (probably the most part of it were formed by Germanic people like Goths or Burgundians).
 
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 08:22
 
Originally posted by Temujin

Luxemburgers are German, not French. what makes them French? nothing. Romans are not French, neither Gauls. Celts (Gauls) originate from Southern Germany, so thats no proove for "Frenchness" even though some people (for reason of language i guess) equal Gauls with modern French.
I don't see how that's relevant to anything. The 'French' are as mixed a race as the English.  There are several German tribes in their heritage as well as Gauls. The issue is what kinds of 'German' settled in the Luxembourg area. There weren't any 'French' at the time. 
Franks are ancestors of parts of French people and parts of German people, thats the only connection. if Luxemburgers would be Alemanni that would mean Palatinate and a whole lot of the Rhineland would be Alemanni too, which is inaccurate.
You don't seem able to distinguish where peoples were at various times, and where they ended up. The Alamanni certainly held a great deal of the Rhineland up at least to the confluence with the Moselle, wherever they ended up eventually.
it is obvioulsy Frankish. i don't see whats the point of trying to make the Luxemburgers Alemanni other than the "prestige" attained to that tribe.
What 'prestige'? If anything the most prestigious element in Luxembourgish ancestry are the Treveri.
furthermore theres no eivdence either that the Alemanni remained in those northern settlements.
Except that pretty well everywhere when a people migrate, some of them stay behind. Even when a population is 'displaced' or 'expelled' its rare for complete ethnic cleansing to take place. That's why the English for instance have such a large Celtic (pace Paul) component in their heritage.
 this is the inconsitency with gcle. he uses displacment and settlement interchangably as he whishes. if it pleases his theory, they made a migratory movement. if it pleases his theory, they only made an incursion. if it pleases his theory, people were displacend and replaced by others. just look at his biased comment on the Huns.
Whether you like it or not, the German tribes settled in Western Europe, and the Huns didn't. The movement of the tribes was part of a massive series of migrations: the movements of the Huns weren't. That's not bias. It's simply true.
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 07:52
Chilbudios, I don't think I disagree with anything in your last post. However, in the previous one you did refer to Luxembourg being in the Romance area 'in the early middle ages', while the map in its version of the 'early middle ages' has Luxembourg in the Germanic area. I accept that you meant something different by 'early middle ages' than the map compiler did (and in fact I'd agree with you rather than him. The end of the western empire comes right in the middle of the time we are talking about, which means I suppose that this is the cusp between the classical period and the middle ages).
 
And yes, at the time in question I'd agree that the area was very mixed linguistically, ethnically and culturally. Indeed that is really my point.
 
Do you think the Franks at this time were in the Romance or Germanic lingusitic group (or were already transient)?
 
PS Incidentally, Luxembourg today has three official languages, French, German and Ltzebuergesch. Most official announcements also come out in Portuguese, since something like 1 in 5 of the present population is Portuguese or of Portuguese descent.
 


Edited by gcle2003 - 14-Sep-2007 at 08:26
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 07:40
Originally posted by gcle2003

[QUOTE=Temujin]obviously the term "occupation" completely evades your mind here. there were no Alemanni settlers in Luxemburg whatsoever (ditto northern italy & central france despite battles being fought there) which means Luxemburger are and were not Alemanni EVER. end of story. if you go on i take it as a personal insult.
 
Take away.
 
Nothing I've said has been in the least bit insulting to anyone. It's not an insult to disagree with someone.
 
I don't see any reason to get heated over this whatsoever. What difference does it make whether the people who think the Alamanni settled in this area are right or wrong?
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 07:38

Double post



Edited by gcle2003 - 14-Sep-2007 at 07:40
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  Quote Aster Thrax Eupator Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Sep-2007 at 05:00
Historically, the French and the Germans are the same people. The Carolingian state was divided between Charles the bald, Lothar and Louis the German. Lothars' state became the disputed area of Alsalce-Lorraine and other boarderlands, whilst Charles's became France, and Louis the Germans' well, Germany. What does this whole debate about Luxemburg achieve? Just because they speak French, it doesn't mean that they can be considered either French or German. Cultures grow and change - you can't always trace back to the roots and place them in old categories. I would agree with Temujin's quote:
 
of course Luxemburgers are neither French nor German - now. Luxemburg elite speaking French doesn't really proove anything, French was the language of the European nobility since the times of Louis XIV and Luxemburg was part of France anyways
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2007 at 16:24
of course Luxemburgers are neither French nor German - now. Luxemburg elite speaking French doesn't really proove anything, French was the language of the European nobility since the times of Louis XIV and Luxemburg was part of France anyways. yes, Alemans did live in Worms but you will not find anyone from Worms who will say he is Alemanni or just in part. from what i can see Alemanni were displaced from those areas to the north and went further south, colonizing Swiss Alps. also, does the battle of Chalons imply that the people of Champagne are descedants of Huns? you cannot say Chalons was just an incursion but Tolbiac not, whats the difference? afterall Huns somehow showed up in Europe so you can't say every campaign was just a raid and no migration. Alemanni have occupied Luxemburg territory so what? where's the evidence of colonization? shall i claim that Chalons is a Hunnish city, what would you say other than call me an idiot?
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2007 at 15:33
If you want to take it this way Luxemburgers are not Germans because they obviously hold a different identity from Germans. I thought when you issued the identity of Luxemburgers between French and German that you're looking for origins and influences not for an actual monolithic definition, because they obviously are none of the two.
 
I've tried to draw some coordinates on the linguistic situation in the area in the early Middle Ages and to point out the persistence of linguistic Romanic lements. Then as I've said the Germanization stretched to the border mentioned above. The Ltzeburgesch, no doubt, a German dialect was formed. However, even in the modern age, being at the border between Germanic and Romance languages (dialects), the Romance influences (from standard French or from other Romance dialects - like the one from Lorraine) were significant on the language. That not to say that the elite of the duchy of Luxembourg was actually French speaking until the 19th century. And I believe French was also the official language until a certain date. gcle maybe can tell you more on these topics.
 
I do not understand on what grounds your perspective on ancient populations is bulit. Romans fought Gauls in the actual French territory, not in Southern Germany. It is certain the Alemanni hold for a while Worms. It is certain Franks defeated Alemanni at Tolbiac (actually there were several conflicts between them, and I'm thinking now only during the reign of Clovis). I've just drawn a line through Palatinate from south-east to north-west. I can't give you know an accurate map of Alemannic certain presence in the Palatinate but I am certain the border between Franks and Alemanni is hard to be drawn, not only because is not very easily detected, but because is unstable and in many regions the Frankish and the Alemannic presence is mixed.
 
As for their stability, many linguistical maps of the ancient world are drawn based on toponymy. Which means that if a group succeeded to imprint a lasting name on a place they once inhabited, I think it can be considered stable enough, don't you? 
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  Quote Temujin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2007 at 14:37
Luxemburgers are German, not French. what makes them French? nothing. Romans are not French, neither Gauls. Celts (Gauls) originate from Southern Germany, so thats no proove for "Frenchness" even though some people (for reason of language i guess) equal Gauls with modern French. Franks are ancestors of parts of French people and parts of German people, thats the only connection. if Luxemburgers would be Alemanni that would mean Palatinate and a whole lot of the Rhineland would be Alemanni too, which is inaccurate. it is obvioulsy Frankish. i don't see whats the point of trying to make the Luxemburgers Alemanni other than the "prestige" attained to that tribe. furthermore theres no eivdence either that the Alemanni remained in those northern settlements. this is the inconsitency with gcle. he uses displacment and settlement interchangably as he whishes. if it pleases his theory, they made a migratory movement. if it pleases his theory, they only made an incursion. if it pleases his theory, people were displacend and replaced by others. just look at his biased comment on the Huns.
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2007 at 13:40
But that is what I was saying. Luxemburgers are both "French" and "German" as the inhabitants of the area in the 5-6th centuries were a mixture of Galo-Romans and Germanic populations (Franks, Alemanns and possibly other stocks). But moreover they are both French and German being between the two later developed nations (and naturally being influenced, also demographically, by both). It's not about proofs, but about plausible hypotheses and claims (given that on any ethnical border mixtures often occur).
 
If you look for evidences, maybe you can find a study on toponymy which can show the Alemannic demographic elements. Perhaps you'll have some suprises and find some where you are not expecting them.
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