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Ancient India was Pakistan

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: History of the South Asian subcontinent
Forum Discription: The Indian sub-continent and South Central Asia
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=10828
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Topic: Ancient India was Pakistan
Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Subject: Ancient India was Pakistan
Date Posted: 11-Apr-2006 at 10:18

I have learnt most of my history from websites.I'm very ignorant about history of South and South East Asia.Is the following article correct.I would want to know the opinions of learned members who are aware about history of South Asia.

"Ancient India" was Pakistan region, not present-day

India!!!!!!!!!!!

Maps printed after 1947 sometimes show the republic of India not as `India' but as `Bharat'. The word derives from Bharata- varsha, `the land of the Bharatas', these Bharatas being the most prominent and distinguished of the early Vedic clans. By adopting this term the new republic in Delhi could, it was argued, lay claim to a revered arya heritage which was geographically vague enough not to provoke regional jealousies, and doctrinally vague enough not to jeopardize the republic's avowed secularism.

In the first flush of independence `Bharat' would seem preferable, because the word `India' was too redolent of colonial disparagement. It also lacked a respectable indigenous pedigree. For although British claims to have incubated an `India consciousness' were bitterly contested, there was no gainsaying the fact that in the whole colossal corpus of Sanskrit literature nowhere called `India' is ever mentioned; nor does the term occur in Buddhist or Jain texts; nor was it current in any South Asia's numerous other languages.
 
Worse still, if etymologically `India' belonged anywhere, it was not to the republic proclaimed in Delhi by Jawaharlal Nehru but to its rival headed by Mohammed Ali Jinnah in Pakistan.

Partition would have a way of dividing the subcontinent's spoils with scant reference to history. No tussle over the word `India' is reported because Jinnah preferred the newly coined and very Islamic-sounding acronym that is `Pakistan'. Additionally, he was under the impression
that neither state would want to adopt the British title of `India'. He only discovered his mistake after Lord Mountbatten, the last British viceroy, had already acceded to Nehru's demand that his state remain `India'. Jinnah, according to Mountbatten, `was absolutely furious when he found out that they (Nehru and the Congress Party) were going to call themselves India'. The use of the word implied a subcontinental primacy which Pakistan would never accept. It also flew in the face of history, since `India' originally referred exclusively to territory in the vicinity of the Indus river (with which the word is cognate). Hence it was largely outside the republic of India but largely within Pakistan.

The reservations about the word `India', which had convinced Jinnah that neither side would use it, stemmed from its historical currency amongst outsiders, especially outsiders who had designs on the place. Something similar could, of course, be said about terms like `Britian', `Germany' or `America'; when first these words were recorded, all were objects of conquest. But in the case of `India' this demeaning connotation had lasted until modern times. `Hindustan', `India' or `the Indies' (its more generalized derivative) had come, as if by definition, to denote an acquisition rather than a territory. Geographically imprecise, indeed moveable if one took account of all the `Indians' in the Americas, `India' was yet conceptually concrete: it was somewhere to be coveted –as an intellectual curiosity, a military pushover and an economic bonanza. To Alexander the Great as to Mahmud of Ghazni, to Timur the Lame as to his Mughal descendents, and to Nadir Shah of Persia as to Robert Clive of Plassey, `India' was a place worth the taking.

The first occurrence of the word sets the trend. It makes its debut in an inscription found at Persepolis in Iran, which was the capital of the Persian or Achaemenid empire of Darius I, he whose far-flung battles included defeat at Marathon by the Athenians in 490 BC. Before this, Darius had evidently enjoyed greater success on his eastern frontier, for the Persepolis inscription, dated to 518 BC, lists amongst his numerous domains that of `Hi(n)du'.

The word for a `river' in Sanskrit is sindhu. Hence sapta-sindhu meant `(the land of) the seven rivers', which was what the Vedic arya called the Panjab. The Indus, to which most of these seven rivers were tributary, was the sindhu par excellence; and in the language of ancient Persian, a near relative of Sanskrit, the initial `s' of a Sanskrit word was invariably rendered as an apirate – `h'. Soma, the mysterious hallucinogen distilled, deified and drunk to excess by the Vedic arya, is thus homa or haoma in old Persian; and sindhu is thus Hind(h)u. When, from Persian, the word found its way into Greek, the initial aspirate was dropped, and it started to appear as the route `Ind' (as in `India', `Indus', etc.). In this form it reached Latin and most other European languages. However, in Arabic and related languages it retained the initial `h', giving `Hindustan' as the name by which Turks and Mughals would know India. That word also passed on to Europe to give `Hindu' as the name of the country's indigenous people and of what, by Muslims and Christians alike, was regarded as their infidel religion.

On the strength of a slightly earlier Iranian inscription which makes no mention of Hindu, it is assumed that the region was added to Daruis' Achaemenid empire in or soon after 520 BC. This earlier inscription does, however, refer to `Gadara', which looks like Gandhara, a maha-janapada or `state' mentioned in both Sanskrit and Buddhist sources and located in an arc reaching the western Panjab through the north-west frontier to Kabul and perhaps into southern Afghanistan (where `Kandahar' is the same word). According to Xenophon and Herodotus, Gandhara had been conquered by Cyrus, on of Darius' predecessors. The first Achaemenid or Persian invasion may therefore have taken place as early as the mid-sixth century BC. That it was an invasion, rather than a migration or even perhaps a last belated influx of charioteering arya, seems likely from a reference to Cyrus dying a wound inflicted by the enemy. The enemy were the `Derbikes'; they enjoyed the support of the Hindu people and were supplied by them with war-elephants. In Persian and Greek minds alike, the association of Hindu with elephants was thereafter almost as significant as its connection with the mighty Indus. To Alexander of Macedon, following in the Achaemanids' footsteps two centuries later, the river would be a geographical curiosity, but the elephants were a military obsession.

If Gandhara was already under Achaemenid rule, Darius' Hindu must have lain beyond it, and so to the south or east. Later Iranian records refer to Sindhu, presumably an adoption of the Sanskrit spelling, whence derives the word `Sind', now Pakistan's southernmost province. It seems unlikely though, that Sindhu was Sind in the late sixth century BC, since Darius subsequently found it necessary to send a naval expedition to explore the Indus. Flowing through the middle of Sind, the river would surely have been familiar to any suzerain of the region. More probably, then, Hindu lay east of Gandhara, perhaps as a wedge of territory between it, the jana-padas of eastern Panjab, and deserts of Rajasthan. It thus occupied much of what is now the Panjab province of Pakistan.

Under Xerxes, Darius' successor, troops from what had become the Achaemenids' combined `satrapy' of Gandhara and Hindu reportedly served in the Achaemenid forces. These Indians were mostly archers, although cavalry and chariots are also mentioned; they fought as far as eatern Europe; and some were present at the Persians' victory over Leonidas and his Spartans at Thermopylae, and then at the decisive defeat by the Greeks at Plataea. Through these and other less fraught contacts between Greeks ad Persians, Greek writers like Herodotus gleaned some idea of `India'. Compared to the intervening lands of
Anatolia and Iran, it appeared a veritable paradise of exotic plenty. Herodotus told of an immense population and the richest soil imaginable from which kindly ants, smaller than dogs but bigger than foxes, threw up hillocks of pure gold-dust. The ants may have intrigued entomologists, but the gold was registered in political circles. With rivers to rival the Nile and behemoths from which to give battle, it was clearly a land of fantasy as well as wealth.

Herodotus, of course, knew only of the Indus region, and that by hearsay. Hence he did not report that the land of Hindu was of sensational extent, nor did he deny the popular belief that beyond its furthest desert, where in reality the Gangetic plain interminably spreads, lay the great ocean which supposedly encircled the world; Hindu or `India' (but in fact Pakistan) was therefore believed to be the end of terra firma, a worthy culmination to any emperor's ambitions as well as a fabulous addition to his portfolio of conquests. In abbreviated form, Herodotus' History circulated widely. A hundred years after his death it was still avidly read by northern Greeks in Macedonia, where a teenage Alexander `knew it well enough to quote and follow its stories'.

The World according to ancient Greeks, includes Pakistan



< = src="http://www.pakhistory.com/adserv/adx.js" =text/> < = =text/> < = src="http://www.pakhistory.com/adserv/adjs.php?n=473799348&clientid=3&exclude=,&referer=http%3A//www.pakhistory.com/historicals.php" =text/> http://www.pakhistory.com/adserv/adclick.php?n=a2ce53e0' target='_blank'>

http://www.pakhistory.com/index.php - http://www.pakhistory.com/index.php




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Replies:
Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 11-Apr-2006 at 12:28

Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

I have learnt most of my history from websites.I'm very ignorant about history of South and South East Asia. Is the following article correct.I would want to know the opinions of learned members who are aware about history of South Asia.

Present day Pakistan was the outskirts of Ancient India.  Ancient India had two major empires, the Gupta Empire and Maurya Empire and both ruled from centers in the heart of present day India:  Pataliputra and Ayodhya.  Pakistan area were mostly tributary states of the much more powerful Ancient Indian Empires.

http://depts.washington.edu/uwch/silkroad/exhibit/mauryans/images/map.jpg">

 



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: AlokaParyetra
Date Posted: 11-Apr-2006 at 17:51

From what i got from the article, Pakistan should be named India instead because of a eurocentric view of what is and what is not considered part of the world.

Personally, i could care less what the greeks thought was part of the world, what the persians called us, or what the british thought we should be named, or how far Alexander went. India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, etc., should be interpreted according to their history, not european.



Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 11:28
Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

I have learnt most of my history from websites.I'm very ignorant about history of South and South East Asia.Is the following article correct.I would want to know the opinions of learned members who are aware about history of South Asia.

Very interesting article and maps Apples n Oranges. It's of significance in a way that when the ancient Greeks refer to India, they're actually referring to Pakistan. It reminds me of Brahmagupta who was the founder of modern Mathematics in many ways, though he's referred to as "Indian" he's actually Multani from modern day Pakistan.



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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 11:44
Well Telde it all comes back as to what exactly you define as Indian. Historically speaking people tend the refer someone from the subcontinant as Indian, as they are from the Indian subcontinant (similar to calling a British guy European). By stroke of luck (and some political turmoil too) there is a country called India in the Indian subcontinent.


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 12:10
I dont deny the existence of India/Bharat/Hindustan, but I'm saying that when the ancient Greeks refer to ancient India they are referring to Pakistan.

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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 12:59
well yes and no. they thought the end of the world was at the ganges, so it was partly in mordern India. But i get what your saying and mostly agree.


Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 13:14

When Alexander marched on Paurava he is said to have been invited by Omphis (Ambhi), ruler of Taxila, who was an enemy of Purushotum (Porus).

For some reason there was a presumption amongst the Greeks that the people east of Porus' kingdom (East of Sutluj River), Magadha were far more fierce than the soldiers of Porus whom the Greeks had fought  thus the Macedonians never ventured East of the Sutluj and into the Gangetic Valley.



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 15:41
Originally posted by Rajput

 into the Gangetic Valley.



....which is in India.

One thing i just realised is the Greeks had knowledge of the Ganges, as they thought it was the end of the world, leading back into the nile. So why isn't it in the maps above?


Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 16:13

Originally posted by TeldeInduz

Very interesting article and maps Apples n Oranges. It's of significance in a way that when the ancient Greeks refer to India, they're actually referring to Pakistan. It reminds me of Brahmagupta who was the founder of modern Mathematics in many ways, though he's referred to as "Indian" he's actually Multani from modern day Pakistan.

Thanx for your reply TeldeInduz.What I really want to know is 'Ancient India was Pakistan region'--- is this statement correct in its entirety.

Thanx for letting me know the Greek point of view,which is very clear from the article.As far as I know ancient Greeks were very learned and a Greek historian wrote it down that Indian men mounted their women from the back like horses and had black semen unlike Greeks.I would request Greek members to ratify my claim.I have forgotten the name of that learned historian.I guess it's not bad to refresh lost learning.

Thanx for the information on Brahmagupta.



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Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 16:42
Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

Originally posted by TeldeInduz

Very interesting article and maps Apples n Oranges. It's of significance in a way that when the ancient Greeks refer to India, they're actually referring to Pakistan. It reminds me of Brahmagupta who was the founder of modern Mathematics in many ways, though he's referred to as "Indian" he's actually Multani from modern day Pakistan.

Thanx for your reply TeldeInduz.What I really want to know is 'Ancient India was Pakistan region'--- is this statement correct in its entirety.

Thanx for letting me know the Greek point of view,which is very clear from the article.As far as I know ancient Greeks were very learned and a Greek historian wrote it down that Indian men mounted their women from the back like horses and had black semen unlike Greeks.I would request Greek members to ratify my claim.I have forgotten the name of that learned historian.I guess it's not bad to refresh lost learning.

Thanx for the information on Brahmagupta.

Yeah, Herodotus said that. You can read about it here. 

The outside world knew ancient India only by ancient Sindh and the adjoining coastal areas. And it had the strangest notions about the people here.

Herodotus, the great Greek historian, wrote: ``All the Indian tribes I have mentioned copulate in the open like cattle; their skins are all of the same colour, much like the Ethiopians. Their semen is not white like other people's, but black like their own skin. The same peculiarity is to be found in the Ethiopians. Their country is a long way from Persia towards the south and they were never subject to Darius.''

Strabo,another Greek historian, wrote: ``Indians had never been invaded and conquered by a foreign power.'' lt is good to hear great ancient historians confirm that India had till then never been conquered by a foreign power. As for copulation in the open, Herodotus was obviously referring to prehistoric times when men were yet to build houses. Why, even in Elizabethan England, Shakespeare tells us, many Englishmen loved to romance in ``fields of rye''.

But the ``black semen'' story reminds us. When the Chinese in the past century heard the Englishmen say that the heart was on the left, they were sure their own hearts must be on the right --- since they were so very different from the British!

http://yangtze.cs.uiuc.edu/~jamali/sindh/story/node5.html - http://yangtze.cs.uiuc.edu/~jamali/sindh/story/node5.html  

- Mohajendra Period by the sounds of it.



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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 16:45
Well i can check for you but im 75% certain it aint black


Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 19:36

 lol anuj



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 19:46

If they were referring to pakistan, then they would have said pakistan, the fact is, that the polity of pakistan did not exist at that time and only came into being 59 years ago.

Britain got its name from the Romans, it originated from one tribe.  India got its name from the Persians referring to the region as Hind, originating from the name of a geographic feature.

It is only correct to say that what the Greeks referred to as India, now lies in the modern nation of Pakistan.



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Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 19:47
Originally posted by TeldeInduz

Yeah, Herodotus said that. You can read about it here. 

The outside world knew ancient India only by ancient Sindh and the adjoining coastal areas. And it had the strangest notions about the people here.

I think it would be better if 'The Outside World' is replaced by 'Ancient Greeks'.

It's like arguing, 'The Outside World' in modern history =The United States of America.

 



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Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 20:06

Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

I think it would be better if 'The Outside World' is replaced by 'Ancient Greeks'.

Actually that is a good point becauseo from 399-412 AD one Buddhist scholar from China by the name of Fa-Hien recorded his travels across the Himalayas into present day India. He has recorded the names of various Indian dynasties in his works through which I believe one can truly appreciate the might of the Indian Kingdoms, strongest of which was the middle kingdom located in Central India and Fa-Hien describes its influences (language, clothes etc.) on the peoples of Ancient Northern India.

A Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms by James Legge, Paragon Book Reprint Corp. 1965



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 20:22
acronym that is `Pakistan'

Pakistan is not an acronym although one has been made up for it. Pakistan comes from two words, pak (pure) and stan (land).

it was somewhere to be coveted –as an intellectual curiosity, a military pushover and an economic bonanza. To Alexander the Great as to Mahmud of Ghazni, to Timur the Lame as to his Mughal descendents, and to Nadir Shah of Persia as to Robert Clive of Plassey, `India' was a place worth the taking.

lol! Nadir Shah of Persia? Nadir Shah of Afghanistan!

Originally posted by AlokaParyeta

From what i got from the article, Pakistan should be named India instead because of a eurocentric view of what is and what is not considered part of the world.

Personally, i could care less what the greeks thought was part of the world, what the persians called us, or what the british thought we should be named, or how far Alexander went. India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, etc., should be interpreted according to their history, not european.

Well said.

Originally posted by Rajput


For some reason there was a presumption amongst the Greeks that the people east of Porus' kingdom (East of Sutluj River), Magadha were far more fierce than the soldiers of Porus whom the Greeks had fought  thus the Macedonians never ventured East of the Sutluj and into the Gangetic Valley.

I thought Siqunder was capturing the Persian Empire, and after his long and extensive campaign his soldigers wished for some rest.



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Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 20:29
So Omar what's your view on this article - "Ancient India" was Pakistan region,not present day India!!!!!!!!!!!!

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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 20:36

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim


lol! Nadir Shah of Persia? Nadir Shah of Afghanistan!

Try Nader Shah of Iran..

Courtesy of LoA:



Obverse

In Farsi reads: " sekkeh bar zar kard nam-e saltanat-ra dar jahan/Nader-e Iran-zamin o Khorasan-e Giti setan" . meaning Nadir of the land of Iran and who seizes the world/coin in gold minted in the name of his kingdom in the world. Mint also on obverse.

Reverse

 

Chornogram for year 1148 reads in abjad letters: in the year, what has happened is good , the total value of letters comes to 1148 which was the year that Nadir became the king, however this jolus type for Nadir was minted from 1148 to 1151.



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Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 12-Apr-2006 at 21:36

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

lol! Nadir Shah of Persia? Nadir Shah of Afghanistan!

Are you mixing the Nadir Shah of the Afsharid Dynasty, born in Khorasan (Iran), with Mohommad Nadir Shah of Afghanistan ?

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

I thought Siqunder was capturing the Persian Empire, and after his long and extensive campaign his soldigers wished for some rest.

What does the Persian bit have to do with anything? There was a gap of 4 years between the whole Persian bit and Porus during which Omphis invited Alexander to Taxila giving him the status of King of Taxila.  Instead of crossing the Beas he chose to conquer south through Mallava territory.



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 02:07
Originally posted by Rajput

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

lol! Nadir Shah of Persia? Nadir Shah of Afghanistan!

Are you mixing the Nadir Shah of the Afsharid Dynasty, born in Khorasan (Iran), with Mohommad Nadir Shah of Afghanistan ?


Its a bit hard to tell which Nadir Shah they're talking about but I think the one they are talking about is the one who invaded from Afghanistan in 1738. Although I'm wrong about him being an Afghan. His sucessor Ahmed Shah Abdali was an Afghan, but Nadir Shah (a turk) controlled the whole of Iran as well (the former Safavid Empire) so its probably acceptable to call him a Persian.


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Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 04:55
Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

So Omar what's your view on this article - "Ancient India" was Pakistan region,not present day India!!!!!!!!!!!!


I still think everyone in this thread is ignoring the fact that they knew about the ganges and therefore knew part of India within its current boundries

What the greeks called India is the subcontinant.  Yes they refered to Pakistan as India, but back then it didn't exist.

The site you got it from is biased and is frankly rubbish as far as i can tell. They took a good name like www.pakhistory.com and used it  for frankly not pakistani history. The maps they've posted are not what the Ancient greeks knew of the Indian subcontinent, only Pakistan. I think the fact that they thought the Ganges was the end of the world is enough to state that the maps are wrong.

Infact, after looking into this site further i can see that its sole purpose is the get one over Indians.

such a shame


Posted By: K. V. Ramakrishna Rao
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 05:21

If Chinese called "Ind", Greeks called India, Persians Hind and laterArabs also Hind, Hidustan by some others, the land is the same Bharat varsha / Barata kanda.

Thinking from today's time and reflecting presentday ideas on the past is historical idiosyncaracy. When John Marshall wrote "5000 years History of Pakistan", historians condemned him, because everybody knew / knows that there was no Pakistan before the creation of "Pakistan" from India or Bharat.

Even the ancient Tamils, very often mentioned or characterized as "Dravidians" opposed "Aryans", record the land where they lived as "Bharat" only. Therefore, that the land where Bharatiyas / modern day Indians lived is Bharat only.

When the Greeks started to know "Ind", it was so big, they referred to it as "India extragangem" and "Idian intra gangem", evidently giving importance to the rive Ganges.

K. V. Ramakrishna Rao.



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History is not what was written or is written, but it is actually what had happened in the past.


Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 05:24

Originally posted by Zagros

India got its name from the Persians referring to the region as Hind, originating from the name of a geographic feature.

I don't agree Zagros.Persians  refer to India as Hind.Koreans call India---Indo & the Chinese Indu.Do you think the Koreans and the Chinese learnt the name of India through the Persians.

Below is the front cover of Indian Passport.In Hindi it says "Bharat Ganrajya".

So I guess your comment 'India got its name from the Persians referring to the region as Hind', needs some elaboration.



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Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 08:02
<my post edited above, please have a look>

just one thing to add, the source is absolutly pathetic, it just had to be said.


Posted By: Arjun
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 09:30

[/QUOTE]

Very interesting article and maps Apples n Oranges. It's of significance in a way that when the ancient Greeks refer to India, they're actually referring to Pakistan. It reminds me of Brahmagupta who was the founder of modern Mathematics in many ways, though he's referred to as "Indian" he's actually Multani from modern day Pakistan.

[/QUOTE]

If Brahmagupta was a Pakistani then what about Millions strong Multani  Hindu community living in India who came to India from "now Paksitan" after partition. And somewhere down the line you will claim the nobel laurate Hargobind Khurana and Dr. Manmohan Singh (The Prime Minister) as Paksitanis since they were also born in the "now Pakistan". There was no Pakistan before 1947. It was formed on the basis of religion and not region. Likewise,will you say, people born between 1947 and 1971 in Bangladesh were pakistanis and their sons Bangladeshis and fathers Indians. This looks absolutely ridiculous.


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From the desert lands of Rajasthan


Posted By: Rajput
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 10:32

Originally posted by AnujKhamar

I still think everyone in this thread is ignoring the fact that they knew about the ganges and therefore knew part of India within its current boundries

Good point and plus it was mentioned by someone earlier on this thread that the Macedonian scouts were par-excellence during their time, cream of the crop so then they must have known about the warriors East of the Beas.

Originally posted by Arjun

If Brahmagupta was a Pakistani then what about Millions strong Multani  Hindu community living in India who came to India from "now Paksitan" after partition.

Even if Brahmagupta was born in Multan it doesn't change the fact that he worked on most of his compilations and literature in Ujjain (Mahdya Pradesh, India) and some of his work was built upon that of his predecessor  Aryabhatta, who was born in Patna, Bihar.

I think the 3 mathematicians who were born in present-day pakistan were Panini, Brahmagupta and the most recent one was a South Indian, Subhramanyan Chandrashekhar Ayyar (1910-1995).



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“If God did not create the horse, he would not have created the Rajput.”


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 11:10
Originally posted by Rajput

must have known about the warriors East of the Beas.




thats the thing, they so obviously did. The only people claiming it are the creators of Pakhistory.com, and i've already stated above how i feel about them in my 2 previous posts
 


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 12:09
Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

Originally posted by Zagros

India got its name from the Persians referring to the region as Hind, originating from the name of a geographic feature.

I don't agree Zagros.Persians  refer to India as Hind.Koreans call India---Indo & the Chinese Indu.Do you think the Koreans and the Chinese learnt the name of India through the Persians.

Below is the front cover of Indian Passport.In Hindi it says "Bharat Ganrajya".

So I guess your comment 'India got its name from the Persians referring to the region as Hind', needs some elaboration.

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=India - http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=India

I hope that's elaboration enough.

 



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 15:58
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Originally posted by Rajput

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

lol! Nadir Shah of Persia? Nadir Shah of Afghanistan!

Are you mixing the Nadir Shah of the Afsharid Dynasty, born in Khorasan (Iran), with Mohommad Nadir Shah of Afghanistan ?


Its a bit hard to tell which Nadir Shah they're talking about but I think the one they are talking about is the one who invaded from Afghanistan in 1738. Although I'm wrong about him being an Afghan. His sucessor Ahmed Shah Abdali was an Afghan, but Nadir Shah (a turk) controlled the whole of Iran as well (the former Safavid Empire) so its probably acceptable to call him a Persian.

Correction: a Turkoman.



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Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 16:13

Originally posted by Zagros

I hope that's elaboration enough.

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=India - http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=India  

I guess that elaborates the Persian and European part.

How would you elaborate 'Indu' or 'Yindu', as the Chinese call India.

PSid the science of Etymology begin in "HIND"?



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 19:12

The region was known locally as Sindh from a Sanskrit root, this region's name was used to refer to the whole of India.

How did the Chinese and Koreans know what to call Iraq? The name obviously came to them from Westerners.



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Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2006 at 22:21

Originally posted by Zagros

How did the Chinese and Koreans know what to call Iraq? The name obviously came to them from Westerners.

Well, the word 'Iraq' as a name for a nation is of very recent origin.

Iraq

Iraq (ee RAHK) is an Arab republic in southwestern Asia which is slightly larger than California. The country is bordered to the north by Turkey, to the west by Syria and Jordan, to the south by Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, and the Persian Gulf, and to the east by Iran.

Ancient Mesopotamia, the "land between the waters," was located between the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers of Iraq. It is part of the "Fertile Crescent" and has been called by anthropologists as the "Cradle of Civilization," possibly the site of the Garden of Eden. One of the first civilizations of the world, Sumer, evolved here more than 5,000 years ago. The first Sumerians are believed to have been immigrants from the highlands of Turkey and Iran. As the area developed, migrations and invasions became more common and influenced the cultural make-up of the region. By the mid-24th century B.C., the Sumerians were overrun by the Akkadians and thus began the rising and falling of a long series of empires in the area. With the spread of iron new weapons of war were developed and the Kingdom of Ashur--or Assyrian, as it is usually called-from the northern part of this region began dominating its neighbors. After the Assyrians fell in the seventh century B.C. the Babylonians reestablished their empire in the region and they were followed by the Medes, Persians, Greeks, and Romans.

Following the seventh century A.D., Islam became entrenched in what is now Iraq. Baghdad, the capital of the Abbasid Caliphate (Islamic Empire), was the leading city of the world for five centuries and was the acknowledged leader of the Arab and Muslim world. In 1258 Baghdad was devastated by the Mongols and was later occupied by the Ottoman Turks. After World War I, the Turks were driven from the area by the British. Britain then created a mandate from three former Ottoman provinces and called this new country Al Iraq (the origin), the name formerly applied to only the southern region of the province of Basra. In 1932, Britain gave independence to this mandate and Iraq became a sovereign, independent state. However, Britain still maintained troops in Iraq and greatly influenced the government.

http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/world/iraq/overview.htm - http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/world/iraq/overview.h tm

Same isn't the case for 'Hind'.I disagree that the Koreans and the Chinese got their name for India from Westerners.

 

 



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2006 at 06:55

Why would the Chinese and Koreans know it as India if the Indians themselves didn't call the place India? Only the Sindhis would have called themselves Sindhi, Indians from other regions not... So tell me... How did the Chinese and Koreans learn to call the place India if not from the West?

If you were telling me the ancient Chinese name for India was India, you may be on to something but as it stands you are just making baseless conjecture.



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Posted By: Apples n Oranges
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2006 at 08:11

Originally posted by Zagros

If you were telling me the ancient Chinese name for India was India, you may be on to something but as it stands you are just making baseless conjecture.

Zagros please read my earlier posts in the thread.Both,ancient and modern Chinese names for India are 'Indu'/'Yindu'.In case of Korean language the name is 'Indo'.



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Posted By: K. V. Ramakrishna Rao
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2006 at 19:40

The name Bharat is specifically mentioned in Manimekhalai:
Padalsar sirappir Bharadhat tongiya (17-57).

Much sung Bharat was famous for maintaining good relations with other
countriesbor with all weaths to be attracted by other countries.

porkottu imayamum podiyum ponre (Puram,2: 25)
Murinjiyur Naganar praises Cheraman Peunchotru Udhiyan Cheraladhan
that he should live long like the golden peaked Himalayas and
podiyam / Podigai Hills.

Vadathu panipadu neduvarai vadakkum
Thenadhu urukezhu kumariyin terkum
Kunadhu karaiporu todukadal kunakkum
Kudathu tonrumudhir bauvattin kudakkum (Puram.6: 1-4).

Karikizhardescribes the land with the biundaries as follows –
1. snow clad tall mountains in the north
2. the fearful Kumari in the south
3. shore washing ocean in the east
4. the old ocean on the west

Tenkumari vadaperungal
Kunakuda kadala ellai (Puram,17: 1-2).
Kurungozhiyur Kizhar describes the boundaries of the land as – Kumari
in the south, a big rocky (hill) in the north, eastern ocean in the
east and western ocean in the west.

Kumariam peruturai ayirai idaiyadhu manthi
Vadamalai peyarguvin ayin idaiyadhu
Chozha nanndau…………………(Puram. 67: 6-8)
Pisirandaiyar mentions that Chozhanadu was in between Kumari (in the
south) and the Northern mountain (Himalayas).


Vadathisai yadhuve vantoi imayam
Tenthisai yadhuve Aykudi inrayin (Puram.132: 7-8).
If the sky touching Himalayas in the north and theclan of Ay in the
South were not there, the vast world would get destroyed.

………………………pani bauvattuk
kunakuda kadalodu ayidai…………(Padit.51:14-15)
Kings and the learned coming from different parts of the land, which
is surrounded by conch sounding cold southern ocean, eastern ocean
and western ocean.

Tenkumari vadaperungal
Kunakudakadala ellai (Maduraikkanchi.70-71)
Mangudi Marudhanar describes the boundaries of the land are – the
southern Kumari, northern big mountain, eastern ocean and western
ocean.

Note how Kurungozhiyur Kizhar and Mangudi Marudhanar repeat the
sentences exactly same as if they quote.

Thus, it is evident that the land where the ancient Tamils / Hindus / Bharatiyas lived was known as "Bharat" only.



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History is not what was written or is written, but it is actually what had happened in the past.


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 16-Sep-2006 at 05:53
Originally posted by TeldeInduz

Originally posted by Apples n Oranges

I have learnt most of my history from websites.I'm very ignorant about history of South and South East Asia.Is the following article correct.I would want to know the opinions of learned members who are aware about history of South Asia.

Very interesting article and maps Apples n Oranges. It's of significance in a way that when the ancient Greeks refer to India, they're actually referring to Pakistan. It reminds me of Brahmagupta who was the founder of modern Mathematics in many ways, though he's referred to as "Indian" he's actually Multani from modern day Pakistan.



Even you are an Indian who has just gone astray.


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 16-Sep-2006 at 06:35
East Germany could survive only for a few decades, before the poor cousin got bak to the pavillion. Let's see how long Pakistan takes. It already made a blunder once & had to suffer separation of Bangladesh. Another blunder could see the NWFP going to Afghanistan, their rightful place.

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 16-Sep-2006 at 10:53
The initial article is ridiculous. The greeks of the V century don't know very well the world of course and they knew first the western part of India, along the Indus. But then they expanded their knowledge: the macedonians knew the northern mountains of Himalaya (they called it "Caucasus" again), in the III century BC the greeks invaded India until the low Ganges near actual Bengala, then the greek-roman traders known very well the western and southern coast of India and more or less the eastern coast until the Ganges. In the II century AC the West know with a certain accuracy the so known historical India that is: actual Pakistán, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka...

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Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 00:11
Originally posted by Ikki

The initial article is ridiculous. The greeks of the V century don't know very well the world of course and they knew first the western part of India, along the Indus. But then they expanded their knowledge: the macedonians knew the northern mountains of Himalaya (they called it "Caucasus" again), in the III century BC the greeks invaded India until the low Ganges near actual Bengala, then the greek-roman traders known very well the western and southern coast of India and more or less the eastern coast until the Ganges. In the II century AC the West know with a certain accuracy the so known historical India that is: actual Pakistán, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka...
 
The word India was coined by the Vedic Aryans to describe the Indus River. They called it Sindhu - this then went on to be called "Hindu" by the Persians. When the Greeks heard of it they called it "Ind". It then went onto be known in European languages, Latin etc. It seems likely that under the Archemid Empire, the word India went onto the Ancient Greeks, and Pakistan is what the Ancient Greeks mean by India. The Ancient Greeks thought that beyond the Indus Valley (Pakistan) lay an ocean that wrapped round the world neatly and that the Indus Valley was the end of the world. It's basically Herodotus that referred to modern day Pakistan as "India". Whether areas beyond the Indus Valley were widely known in Europe is not known, but Herodutus did not know of them.  
 
 
 


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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 00:32
Originally posted by Ikki

The initial article is ridiculous. The greeks of the V century don't know very well the world of course and they knew first the western part of India, along the Indus.


Right, hence ANCIENT India being Pakistan. Now as you very well know Alexander decided not to atempt a conquest of central India but just sailed down the Indus(almost getting killed) and annexed and sacked the cities there. Now if you have any greek references that call Bihar(home of buddha) and Bengal "India" please share them.


Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 05:09
You only read that you want, Alexander wasn't the greek that more advanced in India, you have too the grekobactrian invasions of the III-II century BC; more important, you have the historian-embassor Megasthenes a greek that live in Pataliputra and his book "Indica", a crucial source about the history of India:

http://www.mssu.edu/projectsouthasia/history/primarydocs/Foreign_Views/GreekRoman/Megasthenes-Indika.htm - http://www.mssu.edu/projectsouthasia/history/primarydocs/Foreign_Views/GreekRoman/Megasthenes-Indika.htm

 
And then you have the "Periplus of the Erithrean Sea" of the I century AC about the trade routes between India and Rome

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html - http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html


And we can count the great roman authors like Strabo or Ptolemy.


Well, sufficient? Smile

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Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 11:20
Originally posted by maqsad

Originally posted by Ikki

The initial article is ridiculous. The greeks of the V century don't know very well the world of course and they knew first the western part of India, along the Indus.


Right, hence ANCIENT India being Pakistan. Now as you very well know Alexander decided not to atempt a conquest of central India but just sailed down the Indus(almost getting killed) and annexed and sacked the cities there. Now if you have any greek references that call Bihar(home of buddha) and Bengal "India" please share them.


As i've said constantly in this thread, I have no idea where this indus end of the world thing is coming from, when they clearly knew of the Ganges (to them the end of the world, flows into the nile). The Ganges is not in Pakistan, its in India.


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 12:42
Originally posted by Ikki

You only read that you want, Alexander wasn't the greek that more advanced in India, you have too the grekobactrian invasions of the III-II century BC; more important, you have the historian-embassor Megasthenes a greek that live in Pataliputra and his book "Indica", a crucial source about the history of India:

http://www.mssu.edu/projectsouthasia/history/primarydocs/Foreign_Views/GreekRoman/Megasthenes-Indika.htm - http://www.mssu.edu/projectsouthasia/history/primarydocs/Foreign_Views/GreekRoman/Megasthenes-Indika.htm

 
And then you have the "Periplus of the Erithrean Sea" of the I century AC about the trade routes between India and Rome

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html - http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html


And we can count the great roman authors like Strabo or Ptolemy.


Well, sufficient? Smile
 
The point the article makes is that according to the Ancient Greeks, the usage of "India" was to the Indus Valley aka Pakistan. The Ancient Greek period lasted from 776 BC-323 BC. What most of the authors referred to above are talking about refer to the Hellenistic Period that came after Alexander. I havent read the article but I'm not sure if Strabo even refers to India as modern day India.
 
India is bounded on the north by the extremities of Tauros, and from Ariana to the Eastern Sea by the mountains which are variously called by the natives of these regions Parapamisos, and Hemodos, and Himaos, and other names, but by the Macedonians Kaukasos. The boundary on the west is the river Indus, but the southern and eastern sides, which are both much greater than the others, run out into the Atlantic Ocean. The shape of the country is thus rhomboïdal, since each of the greater sides exceeds its opposite side by 3000 Stadia, which is the length, of the promontory common to the south and the east coast, which projects equally in these two directions. [The length of the western side, measured from the Kaukasian mountains to the southern sea along the course of the river Indus to its mouths, is said-to be 13,000 stadia, so that the eastern side opposite, with the addition of the 3000 stadia of the promontory, will be somewhere about 16,000 stadia. This is the breadth of India where it is both smallest and greatest.] The length from west to east, as far as Palibothra can be stated with greater certainty, for the royal road which leads to that city bas been measured by schoeni, and is in length 10,000 stadia. The extent of the parts beyond can only be conjectured from the time taken to make voyages from the sea to Palibothra by the Ganges, and may be about 6000 stadia. The entire length, computed at the shortest, will be 16,000 stadia. This is the estimate of Eratosthenes, who says he derived it principally from the authoritative register of the stages on the Royal Road. Herein Megasthenes agrees with him. [Patrokles, however, makes the length less by 1000 stadia.] Conf. Arr. Ind. iii. 1-5.
 
Strabo was from the period after the ancient Greeks, but he thought India was rhomboidal - this is more or less the shape of Pakistan. From North to South he knows that "India"aka Pakistan 13000 stadia - he does not know about central or Southern India as yet. Now the question remains where is the Eastern boundary according to Strabo. If it's 10,000 stadia and the Indus is measured at 13000 stadia, then Strabo's "India" would have only reached perhaps as far as Indian Punjab. The Ganges was known to Strabo, but this might have formed part of "Gangadai". India - Indus, Gangaradai - India. Confused 


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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 13:24
Originally posted by Ikki

You only read that you want,

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html - http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html


And we can count the great roman authors like Strabo or Ptolemy.


Well, sufficient? Smile


From the first link you posted:

India, which is in shape quadrilateral, has its eastern as well as its western side bounded by the great sea, but on the northern side it is divided by Mount Hemodos from that part of Skythia which is inhabited by those Skythians who are called the Sakai, while the fourth or western side is bounded by the river called the Indus, which is perhaps the largest of all rivers in the world after the Nile.

Now does this not match the "quadrilateral" map that was shown earlier? Or are there any maps that are more accurate that represent modern India in its true form?






Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 13:31
Originally posted by Anujkhamar


As i've said constantly in this thread, I have no idea where this indus end of the world thing is coming from, when they clearly knew of the Ganges (to them the end of the world, flows into the nile). The Ganges is not in Pakistan, its in India.



Right, but if they give modern pakistan 90% of the area of "India" in their maps and give the rest of india 10% of the area of the entire subcontinent does that not mean anything? Sure they knew of the existence of the Ganges but evidently their maps did not really show much beyond the indus. At least the map that was posted here.


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 18:17
Now that is what confuses me. Alexander invaded Porus' kingdom. Apon doing so I assume he must have gained intelligence of Kingdoms well beyond the Ganges such as Maghada.


Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 18:24
Originally posted by TeldeInduz

[/quote]
 
The point the article makes is that according to the Ancient Greeks, the usage of "India" was to the Indus Valley aka Pakistan. The Ancient Greek period lasted from 776 BC-323 BC. What most of the authors referred to above are talking about refer to the Hellenistic Period that came after Alexander. I havent read the article but I'm not sure if Strabo even refers to India as modern day India.


You are confusing ancient greeks with classical greeks, both hellenistic and classic are ancient greek. If the intention of the article was that the greeks of the classical times only know western India that is, present Pakistan, don't discover the sun: is well known that but this time they only know India because the persians, who knew India with a certain accuracy in her western part. But if we want to be fair, we must understand that after a first moment the greeks knew the entire subcontinent.

I repeat: becareful this "article" is the account of Menasthenes, copied by Strabo and other romans authors, a greek embassor in... Pataliputra!!
 

 
Strabo was from the period after the ancient Greeks, but he thought India was rhomboidal - this is more or less the shape of Pakistan. From North to South he knows that "India"aka Pakistan 13000 stadia - he does not know about central or Southern India as yet. Now the question remains where is the Eastern boundary according to Strabo. If it's 10,000 stadia and the Indus is measured at 13000 stadia, then Strabo's "India" would have only reached perhaps as far as Indian Punjab. The Ganges was known to Strabo, but this might have formed part of "Gangadai". India - Indus, Gangaradai - India.Confused


According with Megasthenes, and following the argument of Gangaradai see Diodorus (37):

"Thus Alexander the Macedonian, after conquering all Asia, did not make war upon the Gangaridai, as be did on all others; for when he had arrived with all his troops at the river Ganges, and had subdued all the other Indians, he abandoned as hopeless an invasion of the Gangaridai when he learned that they possessed four thousand elephants well trained and equipped for war.]"

That is, Gangaridai is included in India; more in that same text, he is talking about India beginning with Ganges and following with Indus.

The geographical shape or the measures are not clear for all the countries of the classical times, think that they called to Gallia "peninsula". But, if you read becareful you have more measures, see Strabo fragment VIII:

" With Megasthenes the breadth of India is its extent from east to west, though this is called by others its length. His account is that the breadth at shortest is 16,000 stadia, and its length-by which he means its extent from north to south--is at the narrowest 22,300 stadia
."


A roman stadium was 226 metres, count yourself Smile But, why go against the evidence, don't you see that the entire book talk about more portions of "India" than the Indus region?








maqsad said

India, which is in shape quadrilateral, has its eastern as well as its western side bounded by the great sea, but on the northern side it is divided by Mount Hemodos from that part of Skythia which is inhabited by those Skythians who are called the Sakai, while the fourth or western side is bounded by the river called the Indus, which is perhaps the largest of all rivers in the world after the Nile.

Now does this not match the "quadrilateral" map that was shown earlier? Or are there any maps that are more accurate that represent modern India in its true form?




Right, but if they give modern pakistan 90% of the area of "India" in their maps and give the rest of india 10% of the area of the entire subcontinent does that not mean anything? Sure they knew of the existence of the Ganges but evidently their maps did not really show much beyond the indus. At least the map that was posted here.


If you read becarefully, you will see that they say too "romboydal", and that they put the limits of India far from the Indus, in the seas far to the south and the east.

maqsad, the book of Megasthenes prove clearly what was India for the greeks... of the hellenistic time. The maps of the first page can prove two things: that is based on obsolete information for the greeks of centuries after Alexander, or the author was missinformated. Anybody discuss that the greeks at the time of Herodotus only know about India her western part, present Pakistan, but is a futile eforce try to prove that they knew anymore, at the moment that the knowledge of India expanded hugely after the Alexander expansion. Here you can see a renaissance map based on the information of Ptolemy (150 AC):

http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg - http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg

You can see both Indus and Ganges and in the middle "India..."



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Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 20:22
Originally posted by Ikki


If you read becarefully, you will see that they say too "romboydal", and that they put the limits of India far from the Indus, in the seas far to the south and the east.

maqsad, the book of Megasthenes prove clearly what was India for the greeks... of the hellenistic time. The maps of the first page can prove two things: that is based on obsolete information for the greeks of centuries after Alexander, or the author was missinformated. Anybody discuss that the greeks at the time of Herodotus only know about India her western part, present Pakistan, but is a futile eforce try to prove that they knew anymore, at the moment that the knowledge of India expanded hugely after the Alexander expansion. Here you can see a renaissance map based on the information of Ptolemy (150 AC):

http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg - http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg

You can see both Indus and Ganges and in the middle "India..."



I can barely read that map but here are some facts:

1. The indus river was the headquarters of the ancient pakistanis(indus valley civilization) from 3000 BC to probably 1000 BC but Im too lazy to check exactly. The modern provinces panjab, kashmir and sindh are the areas in that extended valley. The Indus river was not known as Indus at this point in their language.

2. It was the ancient pakis themselves who named themselves Sindhus around 1500 BC. This naming was based on the Indus river. Do you agree with that or do you assert that some greek or persian explorer came to ancient pakistan and bookmarked that area as "sindhu" or "indus" and later on the inhabitants themselves decided to adopt that name?

Yes there is a lot of confusion with many persians and afghans today claiming they colonized and created the "hindu" culture that arose around 500 BC in ancient pakistan but thats not really relevent right now. Also the macedonians did not occupy pakistan(indus river lands) until 540s BC.

3. The macedonians occupied ancient pakistan until about the 300s BC and they named it India because that region itself had been calling itself the land of the Indus before alexander came. In fact if you read his diary he even sailed down the Indus river fighting with various city states.

4. The Vedic culture of the Indus river valley had already spread to North India before Alexander came through battle and migrations...but the key here is the rulers and intelligencia of the ancient pakis were the original creators of this variant culuture and religion that is related to Zorostroanism(common root) and from pakistan it spread to Northern India. And they called themselves the Sindhus or Hindus.

Anyway......the whole point of these facts was that the name India is more suited to pakistan than to bharat/india because pakistan is where it was created and pakistan was what it referred to first.




Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 21:54
Originally posted by Ikki

Originally posted by TeldeInduz

 
The point the article makes is that according to the Ancient Greeks, the usage of "India" was to the Indus Valley aka Pakistan. The Ancient Greek period lasted from 776 BC-323 BC. What most of the authors referred to above are talking about refer to the Hellenistic Period that came after Alexander. I havent read the article but I'm not sure if Strabo even refers to India as modern day India.


You are confusing ancient greeks with classical greeks, both hellenistic and classic are ancient greek. If the intention of the article was that the greeks of the classical times only know western India that is, present Pakistan, don't discover the sun: is well known that but this time they only know India because the persians, who knew India with a certain accuracy in her western part. But if we want to be fair, we must understand that after a first moment the greeks knew the entire subcontinent.
 
I dont think this is true. The Greeks did not know anything East of the modern state of Pakistan until after Herodotus and the "classical" period - The Classical Period ends after Alexander, and traditionally so does the Ancient Greek Period, but it's not a major point. The main point is that the Greeks did not know anything East of modern Pakistan until the Hellenic Period as the works of Strabo and Ptolemy point out. This was around 200 BC when Europe found out about the Ganges etc. For the most part, all the history of India, before this time in the records of Persians, Europeans would have been of Pakistan.
 
I'll point it out again. Herodotus did not believe anything lay East of the Indus - this was Greek thinking up till the classical period.
 

I repeat: becareful this "article" is the account of Menasthenes, copied by Strabo and other romans authors, a greek embassor in... Pataliputra!!
 
Pataliputra isnt Patna as was thought, this was an area in Balochistan that is in current Pakistan.
 
 
Strabo was from the period after the ancient Greeks, but he thought India was rhomboidal - this is more or less the shape of Pakistan. From North to South he knows that "India"aka Pakistan 13000 stadia - he does not know about central or Southern India as yet. Now the question remains where is the Eastern boundary according to Strabo. If it's 10,000 stadia and the Indus is measured at 13000 stadia, then Strabo's "India" would have only reached perhaps as far as Indian Punjab. The Ganges was known to Strabo, but this might have formed part of "Gangadai". India - Indus, Gangaradai - India.Confused


According with Megasthenes, and following the argument of Gangaradai see Diodorus (37):

"Thus Alexander the Macedonian, after conquering all Asia, did not make war upon the Gangaridai, as be did on all others; for when he had arrived with all his troops at the river Ganges, and had subdued all the other Indians, he abandoned as hopeless an invasion of the Gangaridai when he learned that they possessed four thousand elephants well trained and equipped for war.]"

It's possible Gangaradai was a part of India though Gangaradai = Ganges, India = Indus would be the best way to name things.

That is, Gangaridai is included in India; more in that same text, he is talking about India beginning with Ganges and following with Indus.
 
I'm not sure what the bracketed bit means. Is this what Ptolemy wrote? There were regions it seems called Indica extra Gangem and Indica pars etc.
 
 

The geographical shape or the measures are not clear for all the countries of the classical times, think that they called to Gallia "peninsula". But, if you read becareful you have more measures, see Strabo fragment VIII:

" With Megasthenes the breadth of India is its extent from east to west, though this is called by others its length. His account is that the breadth at shortest is 16,000 stadia, and its length-by which he means its extent from north to south--is at the narrowest 22,300 stadia
."


A roman stadium was 226 metres, count yourself Smile But, why go against the evidence, don't you see that the entire book talk about more portions of "India" than the Indus region?
 
I'm not sure if there's a big disagreement here.
 
Here is the map of India by the classical Greeks (400 BC)
 
 
Map of India by the Romans/Hellenistic Greeks (200 BC)




This means that everything referred to by the Greeks as ancient India before around 300 BC was ancient Pakistan. Everything after 300 BC might have referred to India or Pakistan.

That is, when talking about the Indus Valley, the Aryans, the Archemids, up to Alexander's Empire, the history of Ancient India in these records is the history of Pakistan and not modern day India.

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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 01:17
FUNNY ! All the ancient people talking about Pakistania. when will some people get over their Complex. Anyway if this is not recongnised, it will be the future. East Germany could hardly survive before going back to West. History will repeat itself very shortly. 

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 02:05
Keep waiting LOL 

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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 02:49
Persistance pays. It did pay in Germany, vietnam, Hong kong, will pay in Korea, taiwan.

It also paid well in Bangladesh, kashmir, gradual progress is being observed i n NWFP, Baloochistan, Sindh.


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: AP Singh
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 08:08
The heading of this thread itself is wrong.
It should have been that The Pakistan was also part of ancient India.


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 08:27
No. It should be Genetic Pak was a part of ungenetic India.Some people would have liked it to be "The height of genetic mutations"

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 13:15
maqsad said


1. The indus river was the headquarters of the ancient pakistanis(indus valley civilization) from 3000 BC to probably 1000 BC but Im too lazy to check exactly. The modern provinces panjab, kashmir and sindh are the areas in that extended valley. The Indus river was not known as Indus at this point in their language.


Agree

2. It was the ancient pakis themselves who named themselves Sindhus around 1500 BC. This naming was based on the Indus river. Do you agree with that or do you assert that some greek or persian explorer came to ancient pakistan and bookmarked that area as "sindhu" or "indus" and later on the inhabitants themselves decided to adopt that name?


Agree.

Yes there is a lot of confusion with many persians and afghans today claiming they colonized and created the "hindu" culture that arose around 500 BC in ancient pakistan but thats not really relevent right now. Also the macedonians did not occupy pakistan(indus river lands) until 540s BC.


I suppose, you had a "lapsus": 340 BC.

3. The macedonians occupied ancient pakistan until about the 300s BC and they named it India because that region itself had been calling itself the land of the Indus before alexander came. In fact if you read his diary he even sailed down the Indus river fighting with various city states.


All we know that.



Anyway......the whole point of these facts was that the name India is more suited to pakistan than to bharat/india because pakistan is where it was created and pakistan was what it referred to first.


I totally agree. The problem here is as follow: the initial article want said that in fact, is not fair that present India must be called India, because Pakistán was India first. Well, because it want support this assertion put the enphasis in the fact that the greeks, persians too but specially the greeks (that is, westerness) knew India as the country of the Indus.

Two points.

1. The fact that present Pakistán was called first India don't exclude to present India for the name, at the moment that since the III century BC the entire subcontinent was called India. This is exactly equal than the example of África: the first region so called was Tunisia, then the name expanded to the entire Moghreb and then cover the entire continent like in the present we know it. But, the fact that Tunisia was first África can't be a reason for sack this name to the entire continent.

At the same moment that anybody say "Pakistán is more India than present India because was called India first", another guy can perfectly say "present India is more India, because follow a native tradition, and not a foreigner tradition". So i recommend don't begin with this game.

2. The "supporters" of the article are the greeks. But only the ancient greeks that knew India as the land of the Indus, not the ancient greeks that after the Alexander campaigns knew the entire subcontinent called it "India".


I don't know what we get repeating the fact that all the world know: that the first territory called India was the Indus valley.





To Teldeinduz:

dont think this is true. The Greeks did not know anything East of the modern state of Pakistan until after Herodotus and the "classical" period - The Classical Period ends after Alexander, and traditionally so does the Ancient Greek Period, but it's not a major point.


We know that, but contrary is important, at the moment that the greeks are the "supporters" of the argument "Pakistán first". The classical period is not equal to ancient period, ancient Greece don't finished until the cristianization of the greeks.

The main point is that the Greeks did not know anything East of modern Pakistan until the Hellenic Period as the works of Strabo and Ptolemy point out. This was around 200 BC when Europe found out about the Ganges etc. For the most part, all the history of India, before this time in the records of Persians, Europeans would have been of Pakistan.


Yes, but with more accuracy, about western India, at the moment that present Pakistan was a portion of India.

Pataliputra isnt Patna as was thought, this was an area in Balochistan that is in current Pakistan.


Angry Sirs please we must be serious, don't vast our time.

It's possible Gangaradai was a part of India though Gangaradai = Ganges, India = Indus would be the best way to name things.


The reasons why the greeks expanded the name "India" to the entire subcontinent isn't clear, probably that they viewed an only society and tradition (with diversity) in the entire territory. Read again the text of Megasthenes and the classical authors, they expanded the name India for all the territory, see for example Pliny, Natural History, Fragm. LVI, there he explain the main peoples of India, in Ganges, Indus or Kalinga.

I'm not sure what the bracketed bit means. Is this what Ptolemy wrote? There were regions it seems called Indica extra Gangem and Indica pars etc.


Sure, see here



They included the present province of Assam as "India extra Ganges"!!

I'm not sure if there's a big disagreement here.


Oh my friend a great change, now India isn't only the land around the Indus, but the land between Ganges and Indus, a portion out to the East, the extreme south and Ceylon.


This means that everything referred to by the Greeks as ancient India before around 300 BC was ancient Pakistan. Everything after 300 BC might have referred to India or Pakistan.

That is, when talking about the Indus Valley, the Aryans, the Archemids, up to Alexander's Empire, the history of Ancient India in these records is the history of Pakistan and not modern day India.



Of course my friend, of course, but who want discover the sun? The process is as follow:

1. The Indians of the Indus valley called the river, the region "Shindus" etc

2. The persians knew India, conquered it and stablished there sathrapies.

3. The greeks of classical times know India, but only the region around the Indus valley because their sources was the persian information.

4. After the Alexander's expansion and between IV-II centuries BC the greeks contacted with more indians, then as members of the roman Empire they trade with all the coast of the subcontinent. They included to all the new peoples that they see in the subcontinent as India.


This must be our point of reference, the moment that the greeks have stablished the concept of India in her historical boundaries (II century AC) as we know it until today, not before. That is the end of the proccess, Indus=India, only the beginning.







-------------


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 17:00
Originally posted by Ikki

To Teldeinduz:

dont think this is true. The Greeks did not know anything East of the modern state of Pakistan until after Herodotus and the "classical" period - The Classical Period ends after Alexander, and traditionally so does the Ancient Greek Period, but it's not a major point.


We know that, but contrary is important, at the moment that the greeks are the "supporters" of the argument "Pakistán first". The classical period is not equal to ancient period, ancient Greece don't finished until the cristianization of the greeks.
 
The Ancient Greek Period is the Archaic and Classical Periods. Some include the Hellenistic Period, some dont. I understand that the first article considers the Ancient Greeks up to the end of the Classical Period. This is the traditional definition of Ancient Greece (up till the Roman Empire). This article define the period of ancient Greece as from 800 BC to 300 BC which would have included the Claasical period.
 
There are no fixed or universally agreed dates for the beginning or the end of the Ancient Greek period. In common usage it refers to all Greek history before the http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Roman_Empire - Roman Empire , but historians use the term more precisely. Some writers include the periods of the http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Minoan - Minoan and http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/History_of_Mycenaean_Greece - Mycenaean civilisations (from about http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/1600_BC - 1600 BC to about http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/1100_BC - 1100 BC ), while others argue that these civilisations, while Greek-speaking, were so different from later Greek cultures that they should be classed separately.

Traditionally, the Ancient Greek period was taken to begin with the date of the first http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Olympic_Games - Olympic Games in http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/776_BC - 776 BC , but most historians now extend the term back to about http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/1000_BC - 1000 BC . The traditional date for the end of the Ancient Greek period is the death of http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Alexander_the_Great - Alexander the Great in http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/323_BC - 323 BC . The following period is classed http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/History_of_Hellenistic_Greece - Hellenistic .

These dates are historians' conventions and some writers treat the Ancient Greek civilisation as a continuum running until the advent of http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Christianity - Christianity in the third century AD.

http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Ancient_Greece - http://dictionary.laborlawtalk.com/Ancient_Greece  
 
Also Ancient Greeks are supporters of the "Pakistan first" argument because that is how it was discovered. If the they had sailed round and hit the Ganges first they might have named the whole area Gangetica or something. But they heard of the Indus first because of the Archemid Satrapy, so they called the place India. India was the name invented by the Vedic Aryans of Pakistan. They called the river the Sapta Sindhu, which the Ancient Greeks pronounced "Ind". From then on, India was slowly uncovered in stages.


The main point is that the Greeks did not know anything East of modern Pakistan until the Hellenic Period as the works of Strabo and Ptolemy point out. This was around 200 BC when Europe found out about the Ganges etc. For the most part, all the history of India, before this time in the records of Persians, Europeans would have been of Pakistan.


Yes, but with more accuracy, about western India, at the moment that present Pakistan was a portion of India.
 
The Ancient Greeks thought Pakistan aka "India" was the end of the world. They did not believe the Ganges existed. After Alexander, they believed there was a Ganges..during the Hellene period.
 



They included the present province of Assam as "India extra Ganges"!!
 
Where is the Indus River in this map?

I'm not sure if there's a big disagreement here.


Oh my friend a great change, now India isn't only the land around the Indus, but the land between Ganges and Indus, a portion out to the East, the extreme south and Ceylon.
 
My main point was that the Ancient Greeks knew "india" as ONLY Pakistan. It wasnt until the Hellenistic Greeks and the Romans that it appears the other bits were added onto the Ancient Greek definition of "india", and you've obviously shown that in the articles by Masthenes and Strabo. It's interesting to know the time period when the Greeks found India at each stage.


This means that everything referred to by the Greeks as ancient India before around 300 BC was ancient Pakistan. Everything after 300 BC might have referred to India or Pakistan.

That is, when talking about the Indus Valley, the Aryans, the Archemids, up to Alexander's Empire, the history of Ancient India in these records is the history of Pakistan and not modern day India.



Of course my friend, of course, but who want discover the sun? The process is as follow:

1. The Indians of the Indus valley called the river, the region "Shindus" etc

2. The persians knew India, conquered it and stablished there sathrapies.

3. The greeks of classical times know India, but only the region around the Indus valley because their sources was the persian information.
 
this 3) is wrong. Herodotus went to the Indus Valley as far as I know.

4. After the Alexander's expansion and between IV-II centuries BC the greeks contacted with more indians, then as members of the roman Empire they trade with all the coast of the subcontinent. They included to all the new peoples that they see in the subcontinent as India.
 
 
Yes.

This must be our point of reference, the moment that the greeks have stablished the concept of India in her historical boundaries (II century AC) as we know it until today, not before. That is the end of the proccess, Indus=India, only the beginning.

 
Why ignore what Herodotus wrote about the Indians a.k.a Ancient Pakistanis during the Classical Period? This is just as good as any observations by Ptolemy or Strabo later.
 
The definition of India is irrelevant..the Hellenistic Greeks were outsiders who called India from Pakistan to Bangldesh down to Sri Lanka. The Pakistanis themselves called themselves Sindhus or Indians. I dont know what the Gangetic people called themselves, but it was probably Gangaradains.


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Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: Vedam
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 18:24
Teldeinduz what are you on with your "ancient Pakistanis".
The millions of Indians who left during partition tell me are they actually Pakistanis, and if so why did they end up in INDIA - APPROX seven million, lets say now about 40 million. Belive me there are not millions of Pakistanis living in India.
And what makes you think that the people who occupy Pakistan now are the same ones who resided there during ancient times. Dont people move around? Doesn't Pakistan have 8% Mujahirs from India. How about the Arabs and sheiks and Sayyids, Mughals are they also the "ancient Pakistanis" the Greeks and Romans knew.
The "ancient Pakistanis" you make me laugh! 
Remember you need to go by people not just who occupies the land at a particular point.


Posted By: Anujkhamar
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 18:29
Ikki, can I ask where you got that map from? It may be usefull in a project i'm doing now.


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 18:52
Originally posted by Vedam

Teldeinduz what are you on with your "ancient Pakistanis".
The millions of Indians who left during partition tell me are they actually Pakistanis, and if so why did they end up in INDIA - APPROX seven million, lets say now about 40 million. Belive me there are not millions of Pakistanis living in India.
And what makes you think that the people who occupy Pakistan now are the same ones who resided there during ancient times. Dont people move around? Doesn't Pakistan have 8% Mujahirs from India. How about the Arabs and sheiks and Sayyids, Mughals are they also the "ancient Pakistanis" the Greeks and Romans knew.
The "ancient Pakistanis" you make me laugh! 
Remember you need to go by people not just who occupies the land at a particular point.


Don't worry. 2000 years from now you can call "Bharat" Pakistan. Happy now? LOL


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 20:20
Originally posted by Vedam

Teldeinduz what are you on with your "ancient Pakistanis".
The millions of Indians who left during partition tell me are they actually Pakistanis, and if so why did they end up in INDIA - APPROX seven million, lets say now about 40 million. Belive me there are not millions of Pakistanis living in India.
And what makes you think that the people who occupy Pakistan now are the same ones who resided there during ancient times. Dont people move around? Doesn't Pakistan have 8% Mujahirs from India. How about the Arabs and sheiks and Sayyids, Mughals are they also the "ancient Pakistanis" the Greeks and Romans knew.
The "ancient Pakistanis" you make me laugh! 
Remember you need to go by people not just who occupies the land at a particular point.
 
1) 7 million did not cross from Pakistan to India.
2) The Indus Valley civilization has not been recorded as moving anywhere. Most likely they're just ancestors of some Pakistanis, though not all. They didnt migrate to India if that's what your implying..at least there's no evidence of it.


-------------
Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 18-Sep-2006 at 21:39
Originally posted by Ikki



Two points.

1. The fact that present Pakistán was called first India don't exclude to present India for the name, at the moment that since the III century BC the entire subcontinent was called India. This is exactly equal than the example of África: the first region so called was Tunisia, then the name expanded to the entire Moghreb and then cover the entire continent like in the present we know it. But, the fact that Tunisia was first África can't be a reason for sack this name to the entire continent.

At the same moment that anybody say "Pakistán is more India than present India because was called India first", another guy can perfectly say "present India is more India, because follow a native tradition, and not a foreigner tradition". So i recommend don't begin with this game.

2. The "supporters" of the article are the greeks. But only the ancient greeks that knew India as the land of the Indus, not the ancient greeks that after the Alexander campaigns knew the entire subcontinent called it "India".


I don't know what we get repeating the fact that all the world know: that the first territory called India was the Indus valley.



Yes the entire subcontinent became known as India later on but one thing you did not get from me because I did not really say it...east india was a part of the indus empire....not a part of the indus valley. East India(especially east of the ganges) was a colony of the ancient Indus Valley Vedic civilization. 

Now, west india(mostly between the ganges and the indus) was the heart and the headquarters of this ancient empire whose official HOLY(learned) language was sanskrit and common(popular) language was prakriti. Where was sanskrit created? It was created in ancient pakistan by an ancient pakistani called panini. You have indians today fighting over panini and saying he was "a hindu" or an "indo aryan" and some are even making outrageous claims that this guy was an afghan without any proof. Why? Because the indians want to erase the ancient historical identity of pakistan from their minds and their books since it offends them. Strangely enough using the "enemy of my enemy is my friend" rule they have found great allies with Afghan historians also. They all conveniently forget that the language panini spoke(prakriti) was the language of ancient pakistan(indus valley and extensions) and it was not the language of persians, afghans(pashtoons) or dravidians(south indians today).


So now we are ready to make a little comparison. Does the U.S. state of massachussetts have a right to be considered a part of New England? Of course...nobody minds and nobody really cares. Does some English Atheist guy living in London have the right to call himself British? Of course he does. But does some Christian Protestant guy in Boston, Masacchussetts have the right to say that he is English but that some guy in London is not English at all? Do you see what you are supporting now and why SOME pakis feel this way? Most don't care and in fact might even be happy( most pakis have lost their identity and that makes a lot of indians very happy btw). But some pakis feel that this is wrong.

And we are not saying Bharat has no connection with ancient pakistan. We are saying they have no right to make such ridiculous claims like pakistan had nothing to do with the ancient indus valley culture and empire. Yes it may be part of their religion today but it is more part of our history than theirs. This "culture" argument you are supporting is not really a culture argument it is a religious argument in favor of the Hindu Indians(bharatis).

Yes, religious history supports your argument but geography, history, linguistics and a lot more supports the argument the greek was making.

Now you ask why I am repeating what the world already knows? I just want to put it in perspective here.


Posted By: Vedam
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 09:08
So by your logic Maqsad, the Moors in Cordoba have nothing to do with the Arabs because it is now called Spain and is a Christian
country.
Let me tell you about this "Panini" that you call an ancient Pakistani. Panini is part of the Kaushik clan of Brahmins who are one of the first Brahmin clans, Kaushik today is a very popular surname in India for Brahmins.
Tell me do the Jews no longer have any claims to Jewish historical figures if they no longer live in the exact same place for 3000 years.
I do not say that Pakistan has nothing to do with the Indus valley civilasation, but you cannot say the Indian involvement in that area was only religious, and yet somehow manage to separate history, politics and geography somehow, as if you have different ethnicities for different types of culture somehow.


Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 12:52
Originally posted by maqsad





...


Those are political questions and i don't want enter there Confused



Anujkhamar said

Ikki, can I ask where you got that map from? It may be usefull in a project i'm doing now.



The first from here

http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg - http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg

And the second is posted on Wikipedia about if i remember well the kingdom of the indogreeks or in the Ptolemy section, wiki don't rule right now Dead

There are several renaissance versions of the Ptolemy map.

bye




-------------


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 13:16
Originally posted by Vedam

So by your logic Maqsad, the Moors in Cordoba have nothing to do with the Arabs because it is now called Spain and is a Christian
country.


"The Arabs" is a very vague term. Arabic is just a language. And by my logic they have a lot to do with the Arabs in Morocco and Algeria if you look at history regardless of religious conversions and affiliations.

Originally posted by Vedam


Let me tell you about this "Panini" that you call an ancient Pakistani. Panini is part of the Kaushik clan of Brahmins who are one of the first Brahmin clans, Kaushik today is a very popular surname in India for Brahmins.


Mohammad is a very popular surname today in Pakistan. Does that mean anything? Think about it.  Wouldn't somebody living in Mecca today have a stronger historical link with that certain someone?

Originally posted by Vedam


Tell me do the Jews no longer have any claims to Jewish historical figures if they no longer live in the exact same place for 3000 years.


"The Jews" is a very vague term once again. And in answer, Talmudics have very little claim to Orthodox Shepardic historical figures because they did not live in "that place" even 3000 years ago.

Originally posted by Vedam


I do not say that Pakistan has nothing to do with the Indus valley civilasation, but you cannot say the Indian involvement in that area was only religious, and yet somehow manage to separate history, politics and geography somehow, as if you have different ethnicities for different types of culture somehow.


I never said East Indian involvement was only religious. I say that the current day links that are left between modern eastern India and the IVC are just mainly religious. This is because of conversions to Islam, 90% of the people in Pakistan don't know and 10% don't care and like to pretend to be of Iranian, Afghan or Arab stock. You know this well, you can even see these self sponsored hallucinations in full force on AE once in a while.


Posted By: TeldeInduz
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 13:58
Maqsad, IVC had nothing to do with Hinduism or Vedism. Eastern, Souther, Central and much of western India had nothing to do with IVC. A bit of of the states of Punjab (only just) and Gujerat (coastal) is about all. It was centred on Sindh and Balochistan as well as Punjab mainly.
 


-------------
Quoo-ray sha quadou sarre.................


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 16:01
Originally posted by TeldeInduz

Maqsad, IVC had nothing to do with Hinduism or Vedism. Eastern, Souther, Central and much of western India had nothing to do with IVC. A bit of of the states of Punjab (only just) and Gujerat (coastal) is about all. It was centred on Sindh and Balochistan as well as Punjab mainly.
 


You are correct. I should have said the vedic Indus civilization aka Saptha Sindhu or whatever. I know that the connection, if any, between the IVC and Vedic Sindhu culture has not been explained.


Posted By: Vedam
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 17:20

Originally posted by Vedam


Let me tell you about this "Panini" that you call an ancient Pakistani. Panini is part of the Kaushik clan of Brahmins who are one of the first Brahmin clans, Kaushik today is a very popular surname in India for Brahmins.

[/QUOTE=Maqsad] 
Mohammad is a very popular surname today in Pakistan. Does that mean anything? Think about it.  Wouldn't somebody living in Mecca today have a stronger historical link with that certain someone?

[/QUOTE]

OK i will tell you about Brahmin ancestry and how it works. All brahmins derive there ancestry from 7 lineages, which further sub divide into 49. All Brahmins are obliged to know which ancestor he belongs to for ritual purposes. Surnames are not just taken they denote which ancestor you are desended from, which is important during marriage as you are not suppose to intermarry with one who shares the same ancestor. 
You should not use the example of Mohammad as a surname but that of Sayyids for Islam who trace there ancestry to the Prophet Muhammad and Levite/Cohen for Judaism  who will trace there ancestry to Arron brother of Moses.
Using your arguement i can say that Sayyids in India are ancient Indians, which i do not believe is true.


Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 19-Sep-2006 at 23:07
Originally posted by Vedam


OK i will tell you about Brahmin ancestry and how it works. All brahmins derive there ancestry from 7 lineages, which further sub divide into 49. All Brahmins are obliged to know which ancestor he belongs to for ritual purposes. Surnames are not just taken they denote which ancestor you are desended from, which is important during marriage as you are not suppose to intermarry with one who shares the same ancestor.


Whats your point here? What does this prove or disprove? What are you trying to say?

Originally posted by Vedam


You should not use the example of Mohammad as a surname but that of Sayyids for Islam who trace there ancestry to the Prophet Muhammad and Levite/Cohen for Judaism  who will trace there ancestry to Arron brother of Moses.


Trace their ancestry? The only thing they can trace(if the ancestry indeed is unbroken) is their Y chromosome. Nothing else. That was in the case of Arron. For Sayyids its the same thing, just a club a person belongs to. You can see the difference in appearance between Indian Sayyids, Bedeuin Sayyids and Syrian Seyyids. Obviously they are not of exactly the same stock barring the mininal remaining similarities.

Originally posted by Vedam


Using your arguement i can say that Sayyids in India are ancient Indians, which i do not believe is true.


I don't think you understand my argument or my subtleties. The sayyids in India could be anything. The only assurance is they would most likely have mtDNA that they share with most other sayyids and even that is being generous because we have not done any tests but are just assuming.


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 20-Sep-2006 at 01:42
Originally posted by Ikki

Originally posted by maqsad





...


Those are political questions and i don't want enter there Confused



Anujkhamar said

Ikki, can I ask where you got that map from? It may be usefull in a project i'm doing now.



The first from here

http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg - http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/images/PtolemyMapLarge.jpg

And the second is posted on Wikipedia about if i remember well the kingdom of the indogreeks or in the Ptolemy section, wiki don't rule right now Dead

There are several renaissance versions of the Ptolemy map.

bye




Dear ikki why dont you accept it, the 50 year old backward, underdeveloped, poor nation of pakistan can have infinitely more knowledge than the entire thousands of years old Greek culture, infact it is more knowledgeble than the entire world. It being lower on the social, financial, military, economic, developmental hierarchy in the world list of nations does'nt mean it should also be lower on the knowledge hierarchy. This is broadly the philosophy telde is trying to prove.

Remeber discretion is the better part of valour. The wise rule not by the volume of their voice, but by its content. What you say is public knowledge, tried & tested & documented. it does'nt need any proof now.




-------------
PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: M. Nachiappan
Date Posted: 04-Oct-2006 at 04:43
1. The co-called Greek maps or the maps attributed to the Greek caretographers have been made much later, as the researchers believe.
 
2. All the maps are dated to mideaval period with the claims that the
******"copied from the original",
@@@@"copied from so and so, wjho is reportely copied from from the original",
##### "originals were lost"
and so on.
 
3. In any case, Pre-1947 Pakistan was a myth and 1947-Pakistan is the creation of Jinnah, which was and is "Bharat", as the history of "Pakistan" cannot go beyond August 1947 without "India" or India that is Bharat!
 
4. Vivek Sharma passed some remarks about the "infinitely more knowledge than the entire thousands of years old Greek culture, infact it is more knowledgeble than the entire world", this is totally wrong, let him read Herodotus, the "father of History", he says "Indians were having two heads, three eyes and so on....."
 
5. Incidentally, Can I refer those "Indians" as depicted by the "father of history" as Pakistanis?
 
6. If that is the case, the "Pakistanis" can claim that they were "such people" and then, definitely, Panini becomes Pakistani, Ayodhya is located in Afganisthan (a person read such a paper in Indian History Congress" in India few years back), then, perhaps, most or some of "Aryan looking" Pakistanis might be(come) "Brahmins"!.
 
 


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 04-Oct-2006 at 05:05
What I meant by that statement was to ask Ikki to stop expecting logic fro telde as telde's theory is that the 50 yr old pakistan is much more knowledgeble than the thousands of years old greek or Roman or indian culture.




-------------
PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 04-Oct-2006 at 05:07
Telde has another great theory which says that the genetic make up of the persons on the two sides of Indo - pak border is also different. That this border demarcated by the british is not just a political line but also a genetic border, the persons on the pak side being better looking, fairer & so on & so forth.

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn



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