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Indo-European and Uralic families.

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Scholarly Pursuits
Forum Name: Linguistics
Forum Discription: Discuss linguistics: the study of languages
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=1496
Printed Date: 17-Jun-2024 at 02:46
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Topic: Indo-European and Uralic families.
Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Subject: Indo-European and Uralic families.
Date Posted: 09-Dec-2004 at 09:50
Hello everyone! I have two questions conserning the titles language families:
Do you think these two are related? Why/why not?
I have been interested on the subject for some while now, and I would like some comments regarding it.

Thank you !



Replies:
Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 09-Dec-2004 at 11:58
There is a theoretical Nastrian (sp?) language super-family, thats puts Indo-European, Uralic, and a few others together. Don't know much about this though.
Its still kindof a new and iffy theory.


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 01-Feb-2005 at 22:16
*Nostratic, Cywr

It links Indo-European, Uralic, Altaic, Kartvelian, Dravidian and Afroasiatic.
Some versions also include Chuckchi-Kamchatkan, Eskimo-Aleut, Sumerian, and Gilyak

The whole thing is highly dubious, however.


Posted By: JasSum
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 08:04
All people speak the same languge, until God got mad to the people of Babylon, and made them to speak deifferent language, and not to understand eachother.

So maybe this reveals that in past, people really spoked one language (if this is not true, than variuos languages means warius types of homo sapiens, so hitler would be right ...)
And than if with time people started to speak differently, than the bible is true, and it really happend ... maybe not in babylon, but it sure did happend at some point.


Posted By: Bosnjo
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 08:50

Uralic = Turkish/Tartarian/Mongol

They could be related because the Uralic race is able to drink Milk like the Aryan, unlike the Han (Chinese)  and other Eastern Asians can not drink Milk.

I read somewhere that a several thousands years old Mumy was found in NW-China where Uralics like Uigurs live, and the death body had read hairs.

 



Posted By: Aristoteles
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 09:01

Even the "language families" theory is highly dubious by itself, never mind an "uber-language family" that ties most (if not all) of the known language families together.

Anthropological data, though, seem to imply that we all come from a common ancestor (yes, the one from Ethiopia) so, at a very, very, very distant point in time there was an universal "language" of sorts (maybe it was merely above snorting and "grrrr-ing" though) and then different groups of people found different ways to communicate with each other.

Easteners can't drink milk? Never heard of that... only milk or all dairy products? And what means "can't drink milk", they don't like it or can't digest it or something?



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Trying to educate the ignorant, leads only to frustration


Posted By: Bosnjo
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 12:56

...Most Chinese adults do not drink milk because they can not fully digest it. The Chinese, and others who cannot digest milk sugar (lactose), do not have a lactase enzyme. All babies (including Chinese, of course) have the enzyme until they are about three years old; after which they gradually lose the ability to manufacture the enzyme...

http://www.quintron-usa.com/Genetics.htm - http://www.quintron-usa.com/Genetics.htm



Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 13:27
Does Estonian belong to the Uralic language group or are Finno-Ugric languages completely different from those. There is a theory that Estonian ancestors came form the Urals so we might even have a linguistic relation to some people as far as Central Asia, would like to find some similar words between some of Estonian and Central Asian ones.

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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Bosnjo
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 13:35

Yes, but if order in families and wich languages belongs to a family is still disputed. For example in other Maps was Estnian, Finanian and Hungarian belongs  to the Mongol/Tartarian/Turkish languages.

http://media.maps101.com/SUB/WORLD_THEMATIC/worldlang.gif - http://media.maps101.com/SUB/WORLD_THEMATIC/worldlang.gif http://www.zompist.com/Langmaps.html -



Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 02-Feb-2005 at 16:09

"Yes, but if order in families and wich languages belongs to a family is still disputed. For example in other Maps was Estnian, Finanian and Hungarian belongs  to the Mongol/Tartarian/Turkish languages."

Well when my ancestors arrived where we live today, they were similar looking to modern Mongols. Then they mixed with the next immigrants. It could be quite realistic that a few words could be similar to even modern Turkish or Mongol ones.



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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Mangudai
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2005 at 13:57

About estonian - it belongs to the finno-ugrian languagegroup of the Uralic languagefamily. The Uralic family only consists of two groups - the finnougrian and samoyed

The finnougrian group in turn composes subgroups - sįmi languages, Balto-Finnish languages (including Estonian and Finnish), Volgafinnish, Permian, and Ugrian languages (including hungarian)

The idea that the western finnougrians were mongoloid is a myth honed by german and scandinavian racists in the early 20th century. Sure many finnougrian people have features incommon with northern asians (including myself who have somewhat slant eyes and broad, high cheekbones) but there are no evidences of that they originated from Asia



Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2005 at 19:01

Originally posted by JasSum

All people speak the same languge, until God got mad to the people of Babylon, and made them to speak deifferent language, and not to understand eachother.

So maybe this reveals that in past, people really spoked one language (if this is not true, than variuos languages means warius types of homo sapiens, so hitler would be right ...)
And than if with time people started to speak differently, than the bible is true, and it really happend ... maybe not in babylon, but it sure did happend at some point.

Actually, I think it's the other way around. Having ALL humans speak the same languages requires a high level of organisation and could not stretch over like a whole continent, especially not in those times. And of course isolated groups could never come up with the same language! I'd say small groups of people that worked together (on hunting for instance) developed languages, and it wasn't until the time of the real 'civilizations' that things got standardized and larger groups of people spoke the same uniform language. Then, a part of one such group would've entered europe and broke up in different languages again as they settled in different places. I don't know much about the actual history on this, but i this would be a good logical explaination to me.

However, the ability to use language must have arisen somewhere first, have a main source (i don't think it would first appear in multiple places at once) so in that sense you'd be right, there could be a single ancestral language. However, this must be pretty far back, and the relationship between the branches must have become highly insignificant by now. It's now like relating a fly to an elephant - common ancestor influence must be zero percent by now.



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Whatever you do, don't


Posted By: Alparslan
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 02:16
Originally posted by Kalevipoeg

"Yes, but if order in families and wich languages belongs to a family is still disputed. For example in other Maps was Estnian, Finanian and Hungarian belongs  to the Mongol/Tartarian/Turkish languages."

Well when my ancestors arrived where we live today, they were similar looking to modern Mongols. Then they mixed with the next immigrants. It could be quite realistic that a few words could be similar to even modern Turkish or Mongol ones.

Every Central Asian do not look like Mongolian. They may speak same language group but this doesn't mean that they are racially the same people. Western Altaic language speakers who live in west such as Turks, ancient Bulgars, Azeris, Turks of Caucasia, Tartars, Bashkirts, Chuvashs, Cumans etc. and Uralic people have caucosoid features. They were much less mixed with Mongols while they were moving towards west. But they were not Mongols. 

Speaking a same language group doesn't mean that both people are the same. If you think so it means that you are also claiming that Indians, Pakistanis, Persians are the same with Germans.

I wish I could be Mongol. But I am not and western Uralic-Altaic speakers are not so either.    



Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 04:48

People, some of us are forgetting that belonging to the same racial stock doesn't mean that they are of the same linguistical stock.

On the Uralic-Altaic hyphothesis: It is somewhat questionable, although the Uralic and Altaic languages share a lot of common traits, for example agglutination (a lot of suffixes and almost no prefixes), vowel harmony (for example o and ö can't be in the same word) and the lack of grammatical gender (in German der/das/die). Even basic vocabulary is shared, proto-Uralic *keele proto-Altaic *khäälä. This theory however isn't so sure, because it is thought that even the three branches of Altaic are language families of their own.

To Brosnjo: That map does show the Uralic languages in a brown blotch (which in my opinion is very coarse). And its Turkic/Tungus/Mongol languages .



Posted By: Bosnjo
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 16:00

The Ö occurs in the Germanian Languages, but not in Slavian nor romanian or celtic, they could have it from the Altaic or so.

Yes I would say that same Values count more then the Race. Nearly all Races are mixed together, look at the history. Yes the Language of Finns and estonians is from Uralic or Mongolic but they have more Genetical and Cultural from Wikings/Germanians, then the Steppes peoble.

 

 

All Humans are Equal, but I prefer Aryan girls for me they have the pretiest Faces, and good Bodies, but West Africans have also not so bad bodies.



Posted By: JanusRook
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 12:46
This is the theory that makes the most sense for me for language beginnings, all humans have a speech "organ" in the brain that controls muscle movements and coordinates mouth and tongue movements to produce the sounds that make up a language. Now this "organ" was a mutation in early man so only a few people had it, these people for whatever reason were able to outdo their lesser mute brothers and all people can speak now. However we did not all learn how to speak at the same time, sure our ancestors out of africa could communicate but they couldn't talk for a few thousand years more. These independant language areas, which now constitute our language families more or less in some form, each grew into their own languages. What do you guys think?

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Economic Communist, Political Progressive, Social Conservative.

Unless otherwise noted source is wiki.


Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 14:01
I agree. I think there is no other logical way to explain the great diversity of linguistical grammars (Indo-European grammatical genders etc.)


Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 14:44
Me too. That's what I was trying to say earlier on in my reply  . I am however not sure on the 'different sources at the same time' part of it. Animal species didn't come first from different places either did they? Maybe there is something as a main source, but as I said it is so far back, that it is by now highly insignificant.

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Whatever you do, don't


Posted By: kipchack
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 19:49

Some of people claims Finns, and Estons are central asia origined people who live north-east europea. They claim, Uralic language is an last affixed language like Turkish, Tatar..

As a Crimean Tatar origined person, i NEVER think Finns, Estons or Modern Hungarians are related Turks. Finns and Estons look like Skandinavians, and they usually have dolicocephal (long) skull-type. i think they are actually teutonic origined, maybe their language changed during Mogol raids. i also don't think Mogols are also Turkic origined cause they look like more chinese or south asians, and their language were changed old strong Turk Empires before Islam religion..

Turkic people, such as Kazaks, Uzbekhs, Azerbaijan people, Kirgiz, Turkmens and Tatars usually have brakicephal skull type.



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a kipchack never dies..


Posted By: Bosnjo
Date Posted: 15-Feb-2005 at 20:15

I met several Hungarians, who looked like real Mongols.

 

@Finns, did you have a blue ass as you were babies or did you had blue eyes.

AFAIK Turks have blue asses and Aryans blue eyes.



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I am heavely armed, entirely sick and extremly nationalistic.


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 15-Feb-2005 at 22:47
I've heard that finn-urgic languages were spoken in parts of Europe before Indo-European languages arrived, at the very least they were around the Baltic 2000+ years ago alreadyi, so attributing it to the mongols would seem dumb. Hungry/Magyar or course is relativly more recent in its present location, but even that predates the Mongols.

Finurgic and Altaic are not the same family, but often linked together out of convinience. That said, they are probably more similar to each other than they are to many other language families.


Some of people claims Finns, and Estons are central asia origined people who live north-east europea. They claim, Uralic language is an last affixed language like Turkish, Tatar..

As a Crimean Tatar origined person, i NEVER think Finns, Estons or Modern Hungarians are related Turks. Finns and Estons look like Skandinavians, and they usually have dolicocephal (long) skull-type. i think they are actually teutonic origined, maybe their language changed during Mogol raids. i also don't think Mogols are also Turkic origined cause they look like more chinese or south asians, and their language were changed old strong Turk Empires before Islam religion..


Physical appearance has nothing to do with linguistics.



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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 24-Feb-2005 at 19:14
I've heard that finn-urgic languages were spoken in parts of Europe before Indo-European languages arrived,


From the little I've read on this topic there is one major problem in the IE theory.
You see, based on DNA studies, the Uralic speakers have been roughly in the same location since the Paleolithic age.
So the question that came up was, how would these IE speakers get in or out (depending on which theory you prefer) of Europe by simply passing the Uralic’s without having no obvious connection.
Based on this fact, many have come to the conclusion that the IE language has existed in Europe since the Ice Age, which is exactly what archaeologic and DNA evidence are starting to suggest.


Posted By: wilpuri
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2005 at 18:58
Originally posted by Kalevipoeg

"Yes, but if order in families and wich languages belongs to a family is still disputed. For example in other Maps was Estnian, Finanian and Hungarian belongs  to the Mongol/Tartarian/Turkish languages."

Well when my ancestors arrived where we live today, they were similar looking to modern Mongols. Then they mixed with the next immigrants. It could be quite realistic that a few words could be similar to even modern Turkish or Mongol ones.

Most likely highly untrue. The Balto-Finnic populations are clearly European in genetic make-up, no different from other Europeans. The language may have come from the east, but even that is questionable. The 'science' of linguistics, especially of Finno-Ugric linguistics, has a long tradition of prejudice and false conclusions. Forget this mongol talk.

If possible, try to obtain a copy of Kalevi Wiik's newest book. His theories are rather 'wild', yet thought arousing.



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 17-Mar-2005 at 02:48

Finns come from the Urals, we're linguistically far relatives to samoyed peoples, and in one book there was a photo of a finn family that lived 19th century, and they all had mongoloid eyes...Finns moved to Finland as the glaciers retreated...but about those mongoloid eyes-i think they have disappeared during centuries or even millenias that swedish and russians have mixed with Finns as they have moved to area. Lots of Germans have also moved to Finland during the Medieval period (my family was a merchant-family in germany that moved to Finland in the late medieval-period) and have mixed with Finns. Perhaps those mongoloid eyes are a feature that......disappears when a mongoloid-eyed person has a children with a person that hasn't...there was a research that claimed that blonde hair was a such feature and there wouldn't be any blondes after few centuries,but another research proved that not to be true, but on that I base(?damn my English!) my guess.

Finno-ugric languages are relatives to samoyed languages, and both groups belong to Uralic languages-group. Finnish, Estonian, Karelian(really Finnish but because spoken mostly in Russia it's sometimes considered to be a separate language), Hungarian, Lappish(/samean, dunno how to write that either),inkeroinen,mordva, mari,komi,votjakki,ostjakki(these are in Finnish and don't even try to translate these) are finno-ugric languages, and spoken in  eastern baltic areas, Hungary and in central Russia(west of Urals though)

(From my Finnish book

Layers(damn!again!) of Finnish words from different times:

1.Uralic words words that appear(and again!) in both finno-ugric and samoyed languages

2.Finno-ugric words that can't be found in samoyed languages

3.Indo-uralic words that may be loaned from indo-eropean pre-language

4.Baltic loans from 2500-2000 BC

5.Older Germanic loans from bronze age 1500-500 BC

6.Younger Germanic loans (Scandinavic) 50-400 AD

7.Slavic loans 500-1000 AD

8.Swedish loans

9.19th century russian loans

10.loans from greek and latin(philosophy and such words)

11.English loans from modern age



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 17-Mar-2005 at 14:02
Originally posted by Phallanx

Based on this fact, many have come to the conclusion that the IE language has existed in Europe since the Ice Age, which is exactly what archaeologic and DNA evidence are starting to suggest.


People very often change their language. And a language can spread in huge territories without great moving of peoples.


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 17-Mar-2005 at 15:46
Hello!

A few comments:
1. If one states "Finns come from the Urals" one could similarly state "Englishmen come from the Caucasus". Both statements are equally obsolete. The "Urals" and the "Caucasus" are merely the "mean" of the current distribution of linguistically relative languages. I believe in the past people took this "compromise between the extremes" to mean "an origin" of a people. Similarly to Indo-European speakers of the world, the Finno-Ugric speakers of the world represent many "races", cultures and living-styles. Note: Indo-European speakers range from all kinds of peoples from Iceland to India, in a similar fashion Uralic (Finno-Ugric-Samoyed) speakers range from all kinds of people from Norway to Khanti-Mansi and beyond.
2. Genetics can be similarly misinterpreted as not only the FREQUENCY of a genetic marker but moreover the DIVERGENCE of a genetic marker play a role in deducing lineages. E.g. a genetic marker that is more frequent in area A (say90% of a population) can be more divergent in area B (where the frequancy might be, say only 10%). This means that area A has probably been settled from B NOT the other way around even though the absolute frequencies might suggest this.

These statements are valid for any people on this planet.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 04:00

A newer theory, formulated during the 1990´s, says that during the Ice Age the ancestors of the Finns lived at one of the three habitable areas of southern Europe, so called refugias. The two other habitable areas were home for Indo-European and the Basque languages. According to this theory the Fenno-Ugrics spread to the north as ice melted. They populated central and northern Europe, while Basques populated western Europe. Later the Indo-European language speakers presented agriculture to their neughbouring hunter-gatherers. While the Fenno-Ugric and Basque hunter-gatherers learned how to cultivate land they also learned the culture and the language of cultivators, so they became Indo-Europeans. Soon these new Indo-Europeans had population growth caused by agriculture, and they moved to new areas and Indoeuropeanized the local hunter-gatherers, and so on. This is how Celtic, Germanic, Slavic and Baltic languages were born. Finns were not Indo-Europeanized because of their isolated location, and this explains why their language is not related but genes are closely related with Indo-Europeans of central Europe. However, this theory is not accepted by the majority of researchers. It is not easily disproved with archaeological evidence, but many linguistical scientists consider it impossible.

The genetic research points out that the Finns are most related with the Germanic language speakers. According to a wide genetic research the closest group to the Finns are suprisingly the Germanic Flemings of Belgium. It is also remarkable that the similarity is in genes that inherit only from female to female. This suggests that they had common ancestress, probably in the same the late Ice Age refugia. However, the genetic similarity does not necessarily prove that a common language ever existed, or that the common language would have been a Fenno-Ugric one. The Fenno-Ugrian language may have developed and spread only after the Ice Age.

I found this from Wikpedia, 'history of Finland'



Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 04:58

Well, Estonians (or their semi-ancestors atleast) have certainly been Mongol looking, but were mixed by the next culture that immigrated here, Venekirves kultuur, who were more European looking and during time, the quite modern looking Estonians evolved onto the current area of Estonia.

It is just too bad that most other Finno-Ugric ethnicities other than the Finns, Estonians and Hungarians are being consumed by Russian language and culture.



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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 09:14
Comment about "Mongol looks" (the definition probably being the eye fold, facial proportions?). The following is known:
Most European peoples of today have a certain amount of this look. This becomes apparent when one sees e.g. the Icelandic singer Björk. There needen't be any special gene flow event explaning this (but rather speaks for the genetic homogeneity of all human kind). However, there are a few known recent asiatic genetic flows into Europe: the huns, Mongol + Tatar invasion of Russia and the following westernward migrations and the Ottoman Empire are examples.
In eastern Europe there's even a more recent source of a "mongol look": the Tatars who came/were transported to the shores of the Baltic sea during the 19th century (e.g. Tatars who laboured in Suomenlinna/Sveaborg as Russians made their own fortifications there). The model Ninja Sarasalo is an example. I'm not sure if the frequency of a "mongol look" is higher in Estonia, Finland or Sapmi than in any other comparable European country. Perhaps there IS, however, a distinct "Fennic" look to these people?
No-one knows what the peoples of the Venekirves kultuur looked like. By theway, is this the same as the Battle-axe culture which in Finland traditionally has been associated with the arrival of the Indo-european speakers? Or does it belong to the earlier comb ceramic cultures of the Baltic which are associated with a Finno-Ugric language?


Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 11:58
The Battle-axe culture is thought to be the substrate element of Proto-Germanic language (Grimm's Law and words related to seafaring, agriculture and communal institutions). Their predecessors were the Beaker folk but, as far as I know, neither have been thought to be Indo-European.


Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 19-Mar-2005 at 04:24

Well, in my history book, i have two pics, one of a man from venekirves culture, and the other from the kammkeraamika culture, the kammkeraamika guy was all Mongoloid looking and the later immigrated venekirves culture guy was quite European looking.

I will revise my history book to see what i can get on the cultures.



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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2005 at 07:48
heh, how old or how serious is the history book you're reading Kalevipoeg? How on earth can any book claim to know how meso/neolithic people looked like as the skeletal finds are so scarce? And even if one had hundreds of whole skeletons, how could one possibly reconstruct the soft tissue accurately.


Posted By: ksy820326
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2005 at 08:01
Spam


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Posted By: Hrodger
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2005 at 08:12
It would be intresting to hear research conducted on graves in northern
Europe, and not on present population, now when there is a
method for evaluating DNA from degraded human remains.

What is Grimm's Law?


Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2005 at 13:31
I have no idea, but there are two pictures of sculptures of men of that time.

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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2005 at 20:46
Originally posted by Hrodger

What is Grimm's Law?


It's a law of sound change in the Germanic languages, discovered by and named for the very same Brothers Grimm of fairytale fame.

PIE ........... Germanic
p, t, k ------> f, ž, x
b, d, g ------> p, t, k
bh, dh, gh ---> b, d, g

Hence cognates like German "fisch" and Spanish "pez/pescado", and English "brother" and Latin "frater" (Latin /f/ came from PIE /bh/ word initially.)


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 01-Apr-2005 at 09:49
What, kalevipoeg? Your book has photos of sculptures dating to meso/neolithic times found in Estonia? And the sculptures depict asian looking people? Hm?


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 01-Apr-2005 at 09:57
Also, to Phalanx in reply to his earlier posting: If you look at the map of Finno-Ugric speakers of today you notice that they are confined to "islands" surrounded by Indo-European speakers. This would logically suggest that the IE language speakers  has been sort of  "poured" INTO speakers of FU languages. The opposite theory, that the FU speakers would have travelled long distances THROUGH IE language speakers, seems a bit less probable, no?


Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 02-Apr-2005 at 06:33

Originally posted by Cevlakohn


PIE ........... Germanic
p, t, k ------> f, ž, x
b, d, g ------> p, t, k
bh, dh, gh ---> b, d, g

I've been thinking about something like that myself.. it's simplified though (of course it is, and it should be, because it's a model ), we dont have the ž in Dutch and other modern Germanic languages often lack the x in return. I think there are many subrules to this, like

Other Germanic -> Dutch

sk --------------> sx

ju ---------------> ie

So I think by saying k should be x in germanic in that general list is a little bit too much into (Dutch) detail. It's an interesting little list though



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Whatever you do, don't


Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 02-Apr-2005 at 17:16

"What, kalevipoeg? Your book has photos of sculptures dating to meso/neolithic times found in Estonia? And the sculptures depict asian looking people? Hm?"

No, they are plaster reconstructions, logically. And what is the amazemnet at the earlier one being Asian looking. The Finns had beaty little eyes in their earlier years and so did Estonians as they were from Asia, logical. Did you think Finns and Estonians came to their current locations with their big blue eyes and white hair???



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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 03-Apr-2005 at 04:09
Kalevipoeg. Where did you take your theory from? Would you care to enter a source? By the way, would you also state that Norwegians came from India as they speak related languages?  


Posted By: Kalevipoeg
Date Posted: 03-Apr-2005 at 04:22

But Estonians came from Asia or the south (by one of the two big rivers in Ukraine, Dnepr or the other one). And weren't they not Asian looking if they had lived there for thousands of years, it is biological and due to the climate.

Where did the Finns and Estonians come from then... hatched out of an egg in their current heartlands with their current looks???



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There is nothing in the world more helpless and irresponsible than a man in the depths of an ether binge...


Posted By: Tiera
Date Posted: 03-Apr-2005 at 12:58
Uh-oh. This might get a bit complicated now.
"Finns" and "Estonians" DIDN'T COME from any specific place as such. A "Finn" and an "Estonian" is a national identity that has quite recently (like all national identities) crystallised after a cultural evolution which has probably been going on for thousands of years.
There NEVER was a group of humans who called themselves "Finns" or "Estonians" and travelled from somewhere as a group in their modern locations. Similarly, there NEVER was a group of people who called themselves "Norwegians" or "Englishmen" and travelled to today's Norway or the British Isles.
Archeological finds suggest that today's Finland (and northern Scandinavia) for example have been inhabited by a more or less CONTINUOUS culture at least from the comb ceramic culture onwards (ca. 5000b.c.), most likely even from the Suomusjärvi culture (similar to the Komsa culture of Norway) ca. 8000b.c. onwards (practically as soon as the ice sheet receded).
Of course if you go WAY back you can say that ALL Europeans came from Asia since Middle-East is part of Asia and that is the only route from Africa to Europe.
I don't understand what looks have to do with anything we have dealt here. The lack of pigment (resulting in blond hair and light eyes) is just an adaptation to life in northern latitudes and can be found in some Fenno-Ugric speakers as well as in some Indo-European speakers.


Posted By: Mangudai
Date Posted: 03-Apr-2005 at 19:16
Very good post Tiera, I agree


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 04-Apr-2005 at 04:54
But Estonians came from Asia or the south (by one of the two big rivers in Ukraine, Dnepr or the other one). And weren't they not Asian looking if they had lived there for thousands of years, it is biological and due to the climate.


All Europeans came from Asia, Europe was populated by people moving up through the Balkans and over the Black sea, from Asia.
There is no such thing as 'Asian looking', Asia is an entire continent that included Turks, Indians, Japanese, and then some.
Besides, you are suggesting a Western/Central Asia origin, which means they should look Turkish or something.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2005 at 14:27
Originally posted by Teup

Other Germanic -> Dutch

sk --------------> sx


So the English word scar is schaar in Dutch, and skill is schil


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Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2005 at 17:21
Originally posted by Mixcoatl

Originally posted by Teup

Other Germanic -> Dutch

sk --------------> sx


So the English word scar is schaar in Dutch, and skill is schil

well, ok, it doesn't work for English

I'll add a collumn:

Oth.Ger.   Dutch    English

      sk     sx ('sch')   S ('sh')

skjut - schiet - shoot

it's in that direction also, sk is the oldest form, that one is likely to be assimilated into sx (so you can keep on making fricative noise), and the x in several germanic languages is, in turn, likely to turn S, under influence of even lazier people, like the Englishmen . The pronounciation of München is a good example of the latter (although it's not precisely a x originally).

Well I'll wrap up here.. I was just in a phonetics mood today



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2005 at 17:25
fonetics of Romance languages are easier. A comparable sound in various languages:
Italian: gl
French: ill (but may differ)
Occitan: lh
Catalan:ly
Spanish: ll
Portuguese: lh
works almost without an exeption


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Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2005 at 15:35

"Dutch is the closest relative of English. The Frisian language, spoken in the Dutch province of Friesland and very closely related to Dutch, is even closer to English" ---http://www.phrasebase.com/languages/index.php?cat=60

Some sites are really, really full of crap



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Whatever you do, don't


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2005 at 15:38
But Frisian is the language closest to English.
Unless you count Scots as a language


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Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2005 at 16:12
SOme do, ironicly, Lowland Scots more Germanic than modern English is, but yet the Scots are the most vocal about their Celticness.

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Posted By: Teup
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2005 at 05:58

Originally posted by Mixcoatl

But Frisian is the language closest to English.
Unless you count Scots as a language

in whatever case, the statement from that site is wrong, read it closely

However, I think Swedish is way closer to Engish than Dutch is. In word order, cognate resemblance, as well as syntax. It's usually fifty-fifty: topicalisations are for instance the Dutch way, relative clauses are the English way.



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Whatever you do, don't


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2005 at 10:12
Friesan is the language closest to Anglo-Saxon. Modern English is Anglo-Saxon+Anglo-Norman, making it somewhere inbetween Friesan and French.

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Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2005 at 14:13

Originally posted by Cywr

Lowland Scots more Germanic than modern English is, but yet the Scots are the most vocal about their Celticness.

As a matter of fact, they are more Germanic, but we are talking about vocabulary here. The "language" is also spoken in England, by the name of the Geordie dialect. The Lowland Scots and Geordie are actually the same dialect, so you can't basically count Lowland Scots as a language. The dialect derives from the Northumbrian dialect of Old English (=Anglo-Saxon). When the Danes created the Danelaw, the area left north of it was populated by Anglo-Saxons speaking Northumbrian, and so keeping the language intact. Thus, it is the closest "language" to Standard English.



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 09-Apr-2005 at 16:50
Originally posted by Cywr

Friesan is the language closest to Anglo-Saxon. Modern English is
Anglo-Saxon+Anglo-Norman, making it somewhere inbetween Friesan and
French.


Between, perhaps, but not evenly so-- rather, much closer to Frisian. The Norman influences were primarily (though not entirely) lexical, with a bit of derivational morphology as well. Influences, however, most importantly non-syntactic ones, do not denote relation than genetic closeness.



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