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Greek Ancestry of Northern Pakistani Ethnic Groups?

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Category: General History
Forum Name: Archaeology & Anthropology
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Topic: Greek Ancestry of Northern Pakistani Ethnic Groups?
Posted By: TheodoreFelix
Subject: Greek Ancestry of Northern Pakistani Ethnic Groups?
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2005 at 21:32


A Study of the Greek Ancestry of Northern Pakistani Ethnic Groups Using 115 Microsatellite Markers.

Author: A. Mansoor, Q. Ayub, R. Qamar, K. Mazhar, S. Khali
Filed: 31/10/2002, 00:29:10
Source: American Journal of Human Genetics. Oct 2001 v69
Readers' Comments: (0)

Author's Abstract:

Pakistan lies in a region that has witnessed multiple invasions and migrations over the centuries and is therefore composed of diverse ethnic groups. Three northern Pakistani populations, the Pathans, the Burusho and the Kalash claim descent from Greek soldiers who were left in this region after Alexander's invasion of the Indian sub-continent in 327-323 B.C. The Burusho reside in Hunza and Nagar Valleys, which are located in the Karakorum mountains and speak the language isolate Burushaski. The Pathan tribes inhabit the North West Frontier Province of Pakistan and parts of neighboring Afghanistan and speak Pushto, an Indo-European language. The Kalash have been isolated for centuries in the Hindu Kush mountain ranges of northern Pakistan and speak Kalasha, which is also an Indo-European language. To investigate the genetic relationship between extant Greek population and the three Pakistani ethnic groups, forty unrelated samples from each population were analyzed using 115 autosomal microsatellite markers. Tri (17) and tetranucleotide (98) were typed by multiplex PCR and analyzed on ABI 377 sequencer using Genescan software (2.1). VisTA and DISPAN programmes were used for principal component analysis and for calculating the genetic distances between these populations. The heterozygosity values for all loci varied between 0.71 (Kalash) to 0.74 (Greeks). The Kalash population was the least heterozygous and had the lowest number of unique alleles. The principal component analysis of allele frequency data grouped the Pathans and the Burushos with the Greeks. A phylogenetic tree generated using DAS values also separated the Kalash from the other three populations with the bootstrap value of 100% from 10,000 replications. The clustering of the Burusho and Pathans with the Greeks suggests that the gene flow has occurred between these populations.

http://www.faseb.org/cgi-bin/ashg01/show?676886" target=top>www.faseb.org/cgi-bin/ashg01/show?676886



Replies:
Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2005 at 07:10

Let's be a bit more specific - the language of the Kalash and Pathans are Iranic. And do you realize Pathan is the same as Pashtun? The Pathans in Afghanistan and Pakistan number at roughly 50 million (correct me if I am wrong).

Interesting, as far as I was aware only the Kalash claimed to be descended from Alexander's soldiers not the Pathans.



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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2005 at 18:19
I don't see why language is of any relevance but I do agree that it is the Kalash that claim to be Alexander's decendants.

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2005 at 18:45

Well, it is a common occurance that blatant Iranic groups are not given their specific recognition throughout by countries with a weak national (and I don't mean this in a derogatory manner) history and fractuous polity such as Pakistan and certain Central Asian countries. That is why I corrected the vague "Indo-European" classification.

You'll find also significant genetic similarities between Iranian (country) populations and Greeks, but this is more attributed to ancient IE origins rather than Alexander's army, although they have surely left their genetic legacy too.

I can't imagine Pathans being descended from the Greek army, they are a distinct people with an unambiguous history. 

Alexander also recruited Iranians into his Army before he moved further East and it is interesting that the Kalash language is Iranian in such a linguistically isolated area from other Iranian branches.

I have never heard of the third group before. Apparently their language can't quite be pinpointed.

http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Burushaski-language - http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Burushaski-language



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Posted By: TheodoreFelix
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2005 at 20:11
Can a small linguist group really survive for that long? Is the area in anyway isolated? This seems to hard to believe considering all that has happened in the Mid East throughout history.

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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2005 at 20:32

Apparently so.



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Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 12:01
I watched a video concerning Kalash on national TV.They have similar dances with the Ancient  Hellenes(round dances).Their language seems to contain words very similar to Ancient Hellenic ones.They also have very similar to Ancient Hellenic customs,but i really cannot be more specific right now.

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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 12:07

Kalash words-Hellenic ones

-

-

-""

-

di-

 

 



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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 12:09

To those who know Hellenic:

http://www.poa.gr/periodiko/no13/kalas.htm - http://www.poa.gr/periodiko/no13/kalas.htm



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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 13:38

Originally posted by Spartakus

I watched a video concerning Kalash on national TV.They have similar dances with the Ancient  Hellenes(round dances).Their language seems to contain words very similar to Ancient Hellenic ones.They also have very similar to Ancient Hellenic customs,but i really cannot be more specific right now.

Have you ever seen Kurdish dancing?  one of the variations also looks similar Greek.



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Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 14:21
Np.But As i said i cannot really be very much specific concerning Kalash right now.

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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 18:19

Actually the Dorian and Kurdish drum rythms are the same too.

 



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Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 16-Jun-2005 at 19:47
Kalash have so much in common with ancient Greeks. It's really amazing for us. Some actions from the Greek State took place to help them maintain their tradition, with schools founded from Greek governments and individual Greeks.

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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 13:38

hehe, the "Greek" asimilation on Macedonians goes on or what?

trying to false the history again'?

hehe, so funny...

your claims here are pathetic...

many of the dances are much more similar with the traditional Macedonian Dances, & the language have nothing common with ancient greek, but very similar with old MACEDONIAN & today Macedonian language.

read the studies & disertations that are made by number of woldwide respected scholars.

than, pls learn how many Macedonians & how many Greeks fought in Aleksandas army

 than study good the chain of "reactions" & happenings, also the "rebellion" that greek cities made against Macedonian authorities in Greece DURING the Aleksandars conquest.

than study all the ancient chronics & read how many greeks fought VS Aleksandas army (& why they did that)

than ask yourself why Macedonia (Makedon) was Kingdom, & Greek Cities / Greek (Hellenic) Aliance was "demokratia" (democracy?)

than ask yourself why in the most famous "greek" legends (Iliad & Odisee?)  there is no greek words, but many Macedonian.

than ask yourself why you need to steal other  ppl history / identity

are you ashame of your own? no need, man...

than we come to the point: pls do not steal our history, we will always reveal your lies

 



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 13:48

Originally posted by Phallanx

I don't see why language is of any relevance but I do agree that it is the Kalash that claim to be Alexander's decendants.

 

why? the common things between the today Macedonian language & ancient language from Aleksandas army is not relevant to you?



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 18:20
Originally posted by Serdarot

]why? the common things between the today Macedonian language & ancient language from Aleksandas army is not relevant to you?


First of all, the english form of the name is Alexander from the Hellinic ALEXANDROS (), since you want to claim to be his descendant the least you could do is SPELL IT CORRECTLY.

Second, there was no Makedonian language but a Makedonian dialect that is part of the Hellinic language.

Third, No, language is not of much relevance simply because the words may have been adopted during his conquest and not due to "racial mix" or soldiers remaining behind.
In every single language you will find Hellinic words, does that prove that they are descendants of the ancient Hellines??
I'd think not.
Proof of them being descendants of Alexander's troops can be found in customs (which need a much longer time to be assimilated) genes and anthropologic finds.

I could post a number of Hellinic words and the corresponding Polynnesian and Peruvian words and place names. Can that prove descent?
If so the Hellines conquered the world.

Finally, stop screwing up every single topic with your BS.
If you have something you think is worth discussing, open a different topic and let these remain on topic.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 20:55

i agree, stop screwing up every single topic with your BS.

how i spell Aleksandar is my thing, who said i want to spell it as you want to see it spelled?

Alexandros is the "greek" version of Aleksandar, in our culture & civilisation, he was always Aleksandar.

i can provide you with STUDIES & WORKS from INTERNATIONAL scholars, from Universities accros the world, covering THIS subject - the claims from some etnic groups that they are descends from Aleksandars army!

i can provide you with serious studies about the folklour heritage / traditions / linguistic analizes,  you like to?

or you keep on your  bla bla level?

about opening topics: ive just started

i will... many topics

& i am happy to "beat" your "evidence"

 

@ admins, mods & all rest:

i am NOT here to argue or insult anyone!!!

i can not just stand how someone try to assimilate my people / steal our history & cultural heritage!

i am carefull not to hurt feelings, only trying to give my point of view about things concidering my country.

if i understand your writings good (in other topics), i guess almost everyone of you would try to defend his people / country.

so you want to forbit me the right you demand for yourself?

is that greek democracy? is that the world democracy?

so, again, STOP insulting & grow up on the level of civilized communication, or no1 will ever believe you that you (greeks) have or had any culture anytime!

 

peace to all

 

 

 



Posted By: strategos
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 21:14
Originally posted by Serdarot

i agree, stop screwing up every single topic with your BS.

how i spell Aleksandar is my thing, who said i want to spell it as you want to see it spelled?

Ok, not just how He does, but it is how it is spelled in ENGLISH. This forum is in English, and we should communicate in English, not  Bulgarian or Makedonian.

 

 



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http://theforgotten.org/intro.html


Posted By: TheodoreFelix
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 21:43
serdarot

I have to be interesting in this discussion and do not like it distroyed by your pseudo-historical knowledge and nation.

Now if you please, open up your own topic if you wish to discuss your junk.

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Posted By: strategos
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 22:22
Originally posted by Serdarot

 

than ask yourself why Macedonia (Makedon) was Kingdom, & Greek Cities / Greek (Hellenic) Aliance was "demokratia" (democracy?)

 

1. Not all city states were democracies.

2. Macedonia was a Kingdom and a region, just as Thessaly is a region.

3. The Greek city states did not want to be dominated by another kingdom, so isnt it natural to fight back?

4. Were Athenians not Greeks, but a separate Athenian ethnicity? Should another Athenian country be set up, and claim all heritage from Athens? No, that is rediculous, but Tito didnt think it was. Macedonians were Greek just as Spartans, Thebeans, Athenians.



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http://theforgotten.org/intro.html


Posted By: philiptheuniter
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 00:33
Originally posted by Serdarot

hehe, the "Greek" asimilation on Macedonians goes on or what?

trying to false the history again'?

hehe, so funny...

your claims here are pathetic...

many of the dances are much more similar with the traditional Macedonian Dances, & the language have nothing common with ancient greek, but very similar with old MACEDONIAN & today Macedonian language.

read the studies & disertations that are made by number of woldwide respected scholars.

than, pls learn how many Macedonians & how many Greeks fought in Aleksandas army

 than study good the chain of "reactions" & happenings, also the "rebellion" that greek cities made against Macedonian authorities in Greece DURING the Aleksandars conquest.

than study all the ancient chronics & read how many greeks fought VS Aleksandas army (& why they did that)

than ask yourself why Macedonia (Makedon) was Kingdom, & Greek Cities / Greek (Hellenic) Aliance was "demokratia" (democracy?)

than ask yourself why in the most famous "greek" legends (Iliad & Odisee?)  there is no greek words, but many Macedonian.

than ask yourself why you need to steal other  ppl history / identity

are you ashame of your own? no need, man...

than we come to the point: pls do not steal our history, we will always reveal your lies

 

Dude, you really need to mellow out.

Back to the topic. This is indeed a very interesting part of world history. In essence these villages are still somewhat Greek in nature. I have read (sorry I forget where, that the Huns destroyed many many such Hellenic settlements during their invasions that eventually ended up wrecking havoc in Europe. Can anyone confirm this? I have also heard there are such communities in Afganistan and India as well.



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 01:32
Human Genetics
Publisher: Springer-Verlag GmbH
ISSN: 0340-6717 (Paper) 1432-1203 (Online)
DOI: 10.1007/s00439-004-1094-x
Issue:  Volume 114, Number 5
Date:  April 2004
Pages: 484 - 490

Original Investigation

Atika Mansoor1, Kehkashan Mazhar1, Shagufta Khaliq1, Abdul Hameed1, Sadia Rehman1, Saima Siddiqi1, Myrto Papaioannou2, L. L. Cavalli-Sforza3, S. Qasim Mehdi1 and Qasim Ayub1  http://www.springerlink.com/app/home/contribution.asp?wasp=9befe06ae5fd45e0b256418366403f9e&referrer=parent&backto=issue,8,14;journal,16,113;linkingpublicationresults,1:100421,1#ContactOfAuthor10">Contact Information

(1) Biomedical and Genetic Engineering Division, Dr. A.Q. Khan Research Laboratories, G.P.O. Box 2891, 44000 Islamabad, Pakistan
(2) Unit of Prenatal Diagnosis, Center for Thalassemia, Laiko General Hospital, 115 27 Athens, Greece
(3) Department of Genetics, Stanford University, Stanford, CA 94305, USA

Received: 8 August 2003  Accepted: 24 January 2004  Published online: 25 February 2004

Abstract 
Three populations from northern Pakistan, the Burusho, Kalash, and Pathan, claim descent from soldiers left behind by Alexander the Great after his invasion of the Indo-Pak subcontinent. In order to investigate their genetic relationships, we analyzed nine Alu insertion polymorphisms and 113 autosomal microsatellites in the extant Pakistani and Greek populations. Principal component, phylogenetic, and structure analyses show that the Kalash are genetically distinct, and that the Burusho and Pathan populations are genetically close to each other and the Greek population. Admixture estimates suggest a small Greek contribution to the genetic pool of the Burusho and Pathan and demonstrate that these two northern Pakistani populations share a common Indo-European gene pool that probably predates Alexanderrsquos invasion. The genetically isolated Kalash population may represent the genetic pool of ancestral Eurasian populations of Central Asia or early Indo-European nomadic pastoral tribes that became sequestered in the valleys of the Hindu Kush Mountains.

http://www.springerlink.com/app/home/contribution.asp?wasp=9befe06ae5fd45e0b256418366403f9e&referrer=parent&backto=issue,8,14;journal,16,113;linkingpublicationresults,1:100421,1 - Link

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Probably predates???
Central Asian???

Anyone that can clear this for me, cause I'm lost



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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: human
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 04:25
Originally posted by Serdarot

Alexandros is the "greek" version of Aleksandar, in our culture & civilisation, he was always Aleksandar.

Dear serdarot,

As you know the were two nations for the Greeks these yrs. Greeks and barbarians. As you also know (i guess) in the Olympic games only Greek could take part and not any kind of barbarians. As you also know Alexander was participating to the Olympics (and he won a medal).

As you know Macedonias (just like spartans etc) loved Greek gods. As you also know Macedonians were speaking a Greek dialect (as all Greek cities had their own dialect).

Now please tell me a few things :

1. Since you know all the above (i guess you do), which are historically proven, do you have any question that you want me to clear for you?

2. Who are you? i mean your country. i really dont know. you saddenly wake up and say "Hey hold on! im Macedonian. The Greeks stole my history!". Where have you been the rest of the years? Its not ironic. i trully dont know.

3. Have you ever been to the grave of Alexander's father Phillp? There are some Greek written there. i wonder how they got there. 

4. you are reffering to your culture & civilisation. Ok. Can you please tell me about your culture & civilisation.

Thank you



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You Got to Lose to Know How to Win...


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 08:45
Originally posted by Phallanx


Probably predates???
Central Asian???

Anyone that can clear this for me, cause I'm lost

Well, I will speak for the Pashtuns, they are Iranic by culture and langauge.  As we know Iranics are Indo_Europids and this very fact automatically gives them genetic commonality with other IE cultures, to a varying extent.

Genetic studies (one notably carried out by Sforza) inficated that Hellenes and Iranians are closest to each other genetically than to any other group,. Though I doubt the accuracy of this, as I do not believe a big enough Iranian sample was examined. The primary genetic similarites willl be down to an ancient common descent, but then, this above study also says that a more recent trace of similiraity has been detected, and IT IS THIS similarity which they attribute to the Greek army.



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 08:47
I bet a similar trace will be found in Iran, considerinmg Alexander as a policy told his men to take Iranian wives

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Posted By: human
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 08:57
I have read that the Minoans have migrated to Palestine.

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You Got to Lose to Know How to Win...


Posted By: Perseas
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 09:46

Originally posted by human

I have read that the Minoans have migrated to Palestine.

There are many strong evidences linking Philistines with the island of Crete, or as they call it, 'Kaphtor'.

http://www.studylight.org/lex/heb/view.cgi?number=03731 - http://www.studylight.org/lex/heb/view.cgi?number=03731

If you take a look at ancient sources you can find:

- Herodotus stating that the Palestinians originally came from the isle of Crete.

- "saith the Lord: Have not I brought up Israel out of the land of Egypt, and the Philistines from Caphtor, and Aram from Kir?" (Amos 9:7).

- Tacitus, "The Jews are said to have been refugees from the island of Crete who settled in the remotest corner of Libya"

- Jeremiah, "Ah, Yahweh will destroy the Philistines,Last leavings of Caphtor's isle ".[Jer. 47:4 (Bright 1980, (1980, 309)]

- Sophonius, "Beware to you that live on the shore and to the land of Crete"

Of course there are more proofs about the ties of Philistines with Crete. The first settlement of Philistines seems to have been Gaza, whose original name was "Minoah", a clear reference to the fallen Minoic kingdom.



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A mathematician is a person who thinks that if there are supposed to be three people in a room, but five come out, then two more must enter the room in order for it to be empty.


Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 14:27

Human these questions are too difficult for them.

"The Macedonian Question, is more than a mere squabble over a name. It is a well-designed scheme for annexing the northern Greek provinces of Macedonia  and Thrace. It started during the inter-war period, by the decisions of the Comintern and the Balkan communist parties seeking to establish a united (Macedonian and Thracian) State. Subsequently it was Tito, in 1944, who tried to establish such a State within Yugoslavia. He changed the name of Southern Serbia (which had been known as Vardashka since 1913) to "Macedonia" and then proceeded to establish, out of the Slavs of the region (Bulgarians and Serbs), a new Slavic nation inappropriately called "Macedonian".

To transform this theoretical concept into a political reality Tito:

  1. Concocted in 1944 a "Macedonian government" as a first step to the setting up of a Socialist Republic of Macedonia".
  2. Dubbed the local Slavonic dialect "Macedonian language". A special committee worked for years to turn this dialect into the "official Macedonian language".
  3. In 1968 the "Macedonian Church" came into being irregularly, by a government coup. As a result, it was not recognized as a formal Church by any Orthodox Patriarchs or by the Vatican.
  4. In 1969, the "History of the Macedonian nation" was published. Any reference in the world's archives to Macedonia and to historical figures and historical events connected in any way with Macedonia over the millennia, was manipulated and forcibly given a "Macedonian (Slavic) identity".

Thus, politicians and historians collaborated: 

  1. to usurp the name, the emblems, and the history of Macedonia;
  2. to set in motion expansionist aspirations, by renaming Greek Macedonia as "Aegean Macedonia", i.e. part of a united Macedonia and issued maps limiting Greece's northern frontiers to Mount Olympus;
  3. to allege the existence of a "Macedonian minority" in Greece.

Their theoretical basis for these claims was based on the assertion that:

  1. The ancient Macedonians, Alexander the Great, the Ptolemies, etc. were not Greeks (an allegation which is repeated in the recent FYROM's school textbooks for 1992-3).
  2. After the arrival of Slavic tribes in the Balkans in the 6th century AD those Slavs, that managed to reach the Byzantine Provinces of Ancient Macedonia, intermarried with the local non-Greek Macedonians and thus they formed a new ethnic group, the "Slavo Macedonians" who subsequently were simply referred to as "Macedonians".

Lack of the slightest credibility on the part of the pseudo-Macedonian "nation" of Skopje is furthermore revealed by the single fact that Skopje's Bulgarians and Serbs discovered only after 1944 that back in the sixth century they had been transformed from Slavs into Macedonians.

To claim that the Ancient Macedonians were not Greeks, however, and to use the term "Slav" with reference to the creation of the "Macedonian nation" is a trick.

The "Macedonian Nation" does not, nor did it ever exist. The Macedonians were Greeks, they spoke the same language and worshipped the same gods (who were inhabiting the Macedonian mountain of Olympus) and performed the same sacrifices, in the same sanctuaries as all the other Greeks.

The Macedonians, together with the rest of Greeks, possess according to Herodotus, the kind and constituent element that composed a nation:

"And next the kinship of all Greeks in blood and speech, and the shrines of gods and the sacrifices that we have in common and the likeness of our way of life " Herodotus, History VIII, 144,2 (Loeb, A.D. Godley)."

By the way there aren't any descendants of the ancient Macedonians (in the same way there aren't descendants of Dorians, Ionians, Acheans etc) and all the Greeks share mixed genes of the ancient populations. The fact that some non-Greek people claim to be Macedonians (so the descendants of ancient Macedonians) because some of their ancestors lived in Macedonia in the recent past while this region was populated by Greeks, Bulgars, Slavs, Albanians, Turks, is simply a ridiculous bedtime story.

 



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 14:34
About the Philistines, it's undeniable that they were Greeks and the Zionists see the win of David over Goliath (who was Philistene) as a win of the Hebrews over their old enemies, the Greeks.

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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 14:57
Originally posted by dorian

as a win of the Hebrews over their old enemies, the Greeks.

We could also mention Hanukah.

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 15:04

Sounds very similar to a communist plot in a country just north of Iran.

Originally posted by dorian

Human these questions are too difficult for them.

"The Macedonian Question, is more than a mere squabble over a name. It is a well-designed scheme for annexing the northern Greek provinces of Macedonia  and Thrace. It started during the inter-war period, by the decisions of the Comintern and the Balkan communist parties seeking to establish a united (Macedonian and Thracian) State. Subsequently it was Tito, in 1944, who tried to establish such a State within Yugoslavia. He changed the name of Southern Serbia (which had been known as Vardashka since 1913) to "Macedonia" and then proceeded to establish, out of the Slavs of the region (Bulgarians and Serbs), a new Slavic nation inappropriately called "Macedonian".

To transform this theoretical concept into a political reality Tito:

  1. Concocted in 1944 a "Macedonian government" as a first step to the setting up of a Socialist Republic of Macedonia".
  2. Dubbed the local Slavonic dialect "Macedonian language". A special committee worked for years to turn this dialect into the "official Macedonian language".
  3. In 1968 the "Macedonian Church" came into being irregularly, by a government coup. As a result, it was not recognized as a formal Church by any Orthodox Patriarchs or by the Vatican.
  4. In 1969, the "History of the Macedonian nation" was published. Any reference in the world's archives to Macedonia and to historical figures and historical events connected in any way with Macedonia over the millennia, was manipulated and forcibly given a "Macedonian (Slavic) identity".

Thus, politicians and historians collaborated: 

  1. to usurp the name, the emblems, and the history of Macedonia;
  2. to set in motion expansionist aspirations, by renaming Greek Macedonia as "Aegean Macedonia", i.e. part of a united Macedonia and issued maps limiting Greece's northern frontiers to Mount Olympus;
  3. to allege the existence of a "Macedonian minority" in Greece.

Their theoretical basis for these claims was based on the assertion that:

  1. The ancient Macedonians, Alexander the Great, the Ptolemies, etc. were not Greeks (an allegation which is repeated in the recent FYROM's school textbooks for 1992-3).
  2. After the arrival of Slavic tribes in the Balkans in the 6th century AD those Slavs, that managed to reach the Byzantine Provinces of Ancient Macedonia, intermarried with the local non-Greek Macedonians and thus they formed a new ethnic group, the "Slavo Macedonians" who subsequently were simply referred to as "Macedonians".

Lack of the slightest credibility on the part of the pseudo-Macedonian "nation" of Skopje is furthermore revealed by the single fact that Skopje's Bulgarians and Serbs discovered only after 1944 that back in the sixth century they had been transformed from Slavs into Macedonians.

To claim that the Ancient Macedonians were not Greeks, however, and to use the term "Slav" with reference to the creation of the "Macedonian nation" is a trick.

The "Macedonian Nation" does not, nor did it ever exist. The Macedonians were Greeks, they spoke the same language and worshipped the same gods (who were inhabiting the Macedonian mountain of Olympus) and performed the same sacrifices, in the same sanctuaries as all the other Greeks.

The Macedonians, together with the rest of Greeks, possess according to Herodotus, the kind and constituent element that composed a nation:

"And next the kinship of all Greeks in blood and speech, and the shrines of gods and the sacrifices that we have in common and the likeness of our way of life " Herodotus, History VIII, 144,2 (Loeb, A.D. Godley)."

By the way there aren't any descendants of the ancient Macedonians (in the same way there aren't descendants of Dorians, Ionians, Acheans etc) and all the Greeks share mixed genes of the ancient populations. The fact that some non-Greek people claim to be Macedonians (so the descendants of ancient Macedonians) because some of their ancestors lived in Macedonia in the recent past while this region was populated by Greeks, Bulgars, Slavs, Albanians, Turks, is simply a ridiculous bedtime story.

 



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Posted By: Ionian
Date Posted: 25-Jun-2005 at 05:56
 germany? hahaha
Originally posted by Serdarot

hehe, the "Greek" asimilation on Macedonians goes on or what?

trying to false the history again'?

hehe, so funny...

your claims here are pathetic...

many of the dances are much more similar with the traditional Macedonian Dances, & the language have nothing common with ancient greek, but very similar with old MACEDONIAN & today Macedonian language.

read the studies & disertations that are made by number of woldwide respected scholars.

than, pls learn how many Macedonians & how many Greeks fought in Aleksandas army

 than study good the chain of "reactions" & happenings, also the "rebellion" that greek cities made against Macedonian authorities in Greece DURING the Aleksandars conquest.

than study all the ancient chronics & read how many greeks fought VS Aleksandas army (& why they did that)

than ask yourself why Macedonia (Makedon) was Kingdom, & Greek Cities / Greek (Hellenic) Aliance was "demokratia" (democracy?)

than ask yourself why in the most famous "greek" legends (Iliad & Odisee?)  there is no greek words, but many Macedonian.

than ask yourself why you need to steal other  ppl history / identity

are you ashame of your own? no need, man...

than we come to the point: pls do not steal our history, we will always reveal your lies

 



Posted By: philiptheuniter
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 17:57
Originally posted by dorian

Human these questions are too difficult for them.

"The Macedonian Question, is more than a mere squabble over a name. It is a well-designed scheme for annexing the northern Greek provinces of Macedonia  and Thrace. It started during the inter-war period, by the decisions of the Comintern and the Balkan communist parties seeking to establish a united (Macedonian and Thracian) State. Subsequently it was Tito, in 1944, who tried to establish such a State within Yugoslavia. He changed the name of Southern Serbia (which had been known as Vardashka since 1913) to "Macedonia" and then proceeded to establish, out of the Slavs of the region (Bulgarians and Serbs), a new Slavic nation inappropriately called "Macedonian".

To transform this theoretical concept into a political reality Tito:

  1. Concocted in 1944 a "Macedonian government" as a first step to the setting up of a Socialist Republic of Macedonia".
  2. Dubbed the local Slavonic dialect "Macedonian language". A special committee worked for years to turn this dialect into the "official Macedonian language".
  3. In 1968 the "Macedonian Church" came into being irregularly, by a government coup. As a result, it was not recognized as a formal Church by any Orthodox Patriarchs or by the Vatican.
  4. In 1969, the "History of the Macedonian nation" was published. Any reference in the world's archives to Macedonia and to historical figures and historical events connected in any way with Macedonia over the millennia, was manipulated and forcibly given a "Macedonian (Slavic) identity".

Thus, politicians and historians collaborated: 

  1. to usurp the name, the emblems, and the history of Macedonia;
  2. to set in motion expansionist aspirations, by renaming Greek Macedonia as "Aegean Macedonia", i.e. part of a united Macedonia and issued maps limiting Greece's northern frontiers to Mount Olympus;
  3. to allege the existence of a "Macedonian minority" in Greece.

Their theoretical basis for these claims was based on the assertion that:

  1. The ancient Macedonians, Alexander the Great, the Ptolemies, etc. were not Greeks (an allegation which is repeated in the recent FYROM's school textbooks for 1992-3).
  2. After the arrival of Slavic tribes in the Balkans in the 6th century AD those Slavs, that managed to reach the Byzantine Provinces of Ancient Macedonia, intermarried with the local non-Greek Macedonians and thus they formed a new ethnic group, the "Slavo Macedonians" who subsequently were simply referred to as "Macedonians".

Lack of the slightest credibility on the part of the pseudo-Macedonian "nation" of Skopje is furthermore revealed by the single fact that Skopje's Bulgarians and Serbs discovered only after 1944 that back in the sixth century they had been transformed from Slavs into Macedonians.

To claim that the Ancient Macedonians were not Greeks, however, and to use the term "Slav" with reference to the creation of the "Macedonian nation" is a trick.

The "Macedonian Nation" does not, nor did it ever exist. The Macedonians were Greeks, they spoke the same language and worshipped the same gods (who were inhabiting the Macedonian mountain of Olympus) and performed the same sacrifices, in the same sanctuaries as all the other Greeks.

The Macedonians, together with the rest of Greeks, possess according to Herodotus, the kind and constituent element that composed a nation:

"And next the kinship of all Greeks in blood and speech, and the shrines of gods and the sacrifices that we have in common and the likeness of our way of life " Herodotus, History VIII, 144,2 (Loeb, A.D. Godley)."

By the way there aren't any descendants of the ancient Macedonians (in the same way there aren't descendants of Dorians, Ionians, Acheans etc) and all the Greeks share mixed genes of the ancient populations. The fact that some non-Greek people claim to be Macedonians (so the descendants of ancient Macedonians) because some of their ancestors lived in Macedonia in the recent past while this region was populated by Greeks, Bulgars, Slavs, Albanians, Turks, is simply a ridiculous bedtime story.

 

 

Excellent research Dorian!



Posted By: charles brough
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 18:24

Hello everyone, this is my first post.  Let me just give a first impression:

I am amazed that you all have so much detailed knowledge of such a large number of relatively inconsequential ethnic groups.  Also, I am amazed how rude and insulting you are to each other.  From personal experience, I have found out that ethnic groups in this part of the world tend to hate each other with a passion.  I would hope that you do not bring this emnity here to this science of history.  Lets be civilized and show hospitality to each other.

My interest in the subject is limited to an explanation I have made in my study of civilizations that Hindu society originate from a brutal religion-lingual-culture called "IndoEuropean" which migrated thru Iran from north and northwest and into Pakistan in about 1,500 b.c. and which absorbed gods into its system from the matrilineal people in the Indus valley which they conquered.

I am interested if there is any further light the group can shed on this.

charles

http://humanpurpose.simplenet.com - http://humanpurpose.simplenet.com

 

 

 

 

 



Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 18:42

There are many differing points of view on that subject based on mostly on selective evidence, I think you should start a new thread with your theory and perhaps go as in depth with it as you can it is an interesting topic to moot.

Lets be civilized and show hospitality to each other.

I am sorry to say that there is a fat chance of that with Turks, Greeks, Armenians, Iranians and Arabs in the same place it's the perfect recipe for anything but civilized.

 



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Posted By: strategos
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 19:31
Sorry we are not as civilized as you, oh great Zagros. In America, you guys have a thing called "steriotyping." I think you are doing it right now.

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http://theforgotten.org/intro.html


Posted By: Lannes
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 21:56
Now, now, let's not let this thread degenerate into another flame war.  Discuss politely or not at all.

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τρέφεται δέ, ὤ Σώκρατης, ψυχὴ τίνι;


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 27-Jun-2005 at 01:25
Originally posted by Zagros Purya

I bet a similar trace will be found in Iran, considerinmg Alexander as a policy told his men to take Iranian wives


The connection may be much older. I recall some accounts of Persians being descendants of Perseus and that is where their name derives but I'll have to look that one up for more info.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Jun-2005 at 05:57

I didn't exempt myself you know.

 

Originally posted by strategos

Sorry we are not as civilized as you, oh great Zagros. In America, you guys have a thing called "steriotyping." I think you are doing it right now.

Yes Phallanx, and Medians from Medea.



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Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 27-Jun-2005 at 07:34

Originally posted by charles brough

Hello everyone, this is my first post.  Let me just give a first impression:

I am amazed that you all have so much detailed knowledge of such a large number of relatively inconsequential ethnic groups.  Also, I am amazed how rude and insulting you are to each other.  From personal experience, I have found out that ethnic groups in this part of the world tend to hate each other with a passion.  I would hope that you do not bring this emnity here to this science of history.  Lets be civilized and show hospitality to each other.

My interest in the subject is limited to an explanation I have made in my study of civilizations that Hindu society originate from a brutal religion-lingual-culture called "IndoEuropean" which migrated thru Iran from north and northwest and into Pakistan in about 1,500 b.c. and which absorbed gods into its system from the matrilineal people in the Indus valley which they conquered.

I am interested if there is any further light the group can shed on this.

charles

http://humanpurpose.simplenet.com - http://humanpurpose.simplenet.com

The problem here is that everyone is kinda of "that's flat" and it makes the discussion difficult.

Brutal Indoeuropeans? Why?



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Afghanan
Date Posted: 10-Jul-2005 at 13:35
Originally posted by Zagros Purya

Well, it is a common occurance that blatant Iranic groups are not given their specific recognition throughout by countries with a weak national (and I don't mean this in a derogatory manner) history and fractuous polity such as Pakistan and certain Central Asian countries. That is why I corrected the vague "Indo-European" classification.

You'll find also significant genetic similarities between Iranian (country) populations and Greeks, but this is more attributed to ancient IE origins rather than Alexander's army, although they have surely left their genetic legacy too.

I can't imagine Pathans being descended from the Greek army, they are a distinct people with an unambiguous history. 

Alexander also recruited Iranians into his Army before he moved further East and it is interesting that the Kalash language is Iranian in such a linguistically isolated area from other Iranian branches.

I have never heard of the third group before. Apparently their language can't quite be pinpointed.

http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Burushaski-language - http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Burushaski-language

The Pashtuns are ignorant about their own history.  Pashtuns have a folktale claiming they are descendants from ancient Israelites and became Muslims after one of their ancestors travelled to Arabia and made them Muslims.  This folktale has been proven a myth.  The only tribe of some peculiar, if not mistakened relationship with Jews are the Afridis.  Herodotus mentions them as the "Aparutae".  Afridis do not call themselves Afridis, but "Apridi".  And the root word, "Aparu" may signify "Hebrew."  Other than that shady relationship, there is no real connection.   Ironically, the Afridis claim a different descent.

The Afridi Pashtun tribesmen claim descent from Alexander's armies, and Caroe (British Historian) did see some qualities of them that reminded him of Alexander's armies, but he later admitted that this tale might have just been passed down from more recent Islamic texts describing Alexander.

Pashtuns themselves are most likely mix of Hamuvargan Scythians of Ferghana Valley (currently split b/w Uzbekistan/Tajikistan/Kyrghizstan), mixed with other Scythian tribes such as the Tu-Chih (Tocharians) who amalgamated with the Turkified descendants of the Hephtalites,  and the Yue-Chih (Kushans), and are related with peoples of the Pamir who speak Eastern Iranian langauges.  Even today their makekup is mixing.  They are absorbing the Nuristani peoples, and have already absorbed the Indo-European Ormuri speaking peoples of Logar and Khost/Paktika.  In Peshawar, they absorbed the Hindko-speaking peoples, and in the capital city of Baluchistan, Pashtuns are now 50% of the population.    Currently I believe they comprise the largest tribal society in the world with a total of 40 Million+ people, not including their descendants in India, Guyana, and Australia.

As for the Nuristanis, Greeks claim them to be of Greek descent, but most likely they were not Greek, and they saw their likeness in them because like them, they are Indo-Europeans, and lots of words are similiar between Greek (which has a big indo-European influence) and Indo-Aryan languages of Eastern Afghanistan, NW pakistan.

In my belief the Nuristanis/Chitralis/Kalash people are Iranian, but not Persian, and definitely not Greeks.  As for the invading Greeks themselves, their armies were all mixed, from Assyrians, to Lodians, to Iranians themselves, intermixed and settled in Afghanistan and Pushtun/Afghan tribal regions of NW Pakistan.  Cities such as Kohat, Bagram, etc, were recognized as areas where Alexander's armies passed.  To say they are descendants of Greeks would be false, to say there is some admixture, its possible.  But then its also possible in Transoxiana too.



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The perceptive man is he who knows about himself, for in self-knowledge and insight lays knowledge of the holiest.
~ Khushal Khan Khattak


Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 03:04
Originally posted by Afghanan

As for the Nuristanis, Greeks claim them to be of Greek descent, but most likely they were not Greek, and they saw their likeness in them because like them, they are Indo-Europeans, and lots of words are similiar between Greek (which has a big indo-European influence) and Indo-Aryan languages of Eastern Afghanistan, NW pakistan.

In my belief the Nuristanis/Chitralis/Kalash people are Iranian, but not Persian, and definitely not Greeks.  As for the invading Greeks themselves, their armies were all mixed, from Assyrians, to Lodians, to Iranians themselves, intermixed and settled in Afghanistan and Pushtun/Afghan tribal regions of NW Pakistan.  Cities such as Kohat, Bagram, etc, were recognized as areas where Alexander's armies passed.  To say they are descendants of Greeks would be false, to say there is some admixture, its possible.  But then its also possible in Transoxiana too.

That is my belief as well. I don't think that enough Greeks settled in this area to make any significant impact in the population. Regarding the language, as Afghanan mentioned, Greek and Iranian are both Indoeuropean languages, so the basic word-roots are similar.

Of course, it's a nice story and if they believe it to be so, that's fine by me 

 



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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics

Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: Anonym
Date Posted: 29-Jul-2005 at 14:05

Originally posted by dorian

About the Philistines, it's undeniable that they were Greeks and the Zionists see the win of David over Goliath (who was Philistene) as a win of the Hebrews over their old enemies, the Greeks.

wait, did I miss something?  Can you elaborate on the philistine-greek link?



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 29-Jul-2005 at 15:01
Originally posted by Anonym

Originally posted by dorian

About the Philistines, it's undeniable that they were Greeks and the Zionists see the win of David over Goliath (who was Philistene) as a win of the Hebrews over their old enemies, the Greeks.

wait, did I miss something?  Can you elaborate on the philistine-greek link?



It seems that the Philistines were originally of Hellinic 'stock' before they were assimilated by the Semitic. For more info look at page 2 of this topic and the one about the Sea People.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 03:43

Well Hello Everyone!! It's my first post so I'll probably just recao everything you've said  

I'm Pashtun too though from the Pakistani side in the NWFP. Most Pashtuns I know dont think much of the Israelite theory mentioned above, and neither does genetic research. This paper was published in the "American Journal of Human Genetics" titled "Y-­Chromosomal DNA Variation in Pakistan" in May, 2002 and conducted by (1) Cancer Research Campaign, Chromosome Molecular Biology Group, Department of Biochemistry and Institute of Biological Anthropology, University of Oxford, Oxford, UK, (2) deCODE Genetics, Reykjavik, and (3) Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan Research Laboratries, Islamabad.

"Two populations, the Kashmiris and the Pathans, also lay claim to a possible Jewish origin. Jewish populations commonly have a moderate frequency of haplogroup 21 (e.g., 20%) and a high frequency of haplogroup 9 (e.g., 36%; (Hammer et al. 2000). The frequencies of both of these haplogroups are low in the Kashmiris and Pathans, and haplogroup 28 is present at 13% in the Pathans, so no support for a Jewish origin is found, and the admix­ ture estimate was 0% (table 3), although, again, this conclusion is limited both by the small sample size avail­able from Kashmir and by the assumption that the mod­ ern samples are representative of ancient populations."

So I doubt there's much in that theory.

I'd agree there's definitely some Scythian mixing in Pashtun genes. Figures have been quoted as follows.

"The Y-Chromosome for Pashtuns has the following Haplogroups with the corresponding frequencies.

Hg1 10% (Prevalent in Westen Europe)
Hg2 15% (Prevalent in Northeastern Europe)
Hg3 45% (Prevalent in Northeastern Europe and North-West South Asia) 

Hg9 6% (This is represented in Jews 36% so it is a Jewish gene marker )
Hg21 2% (This is represented in Jews 20% and is almost a Jewish gene marker)
Hg26 6%
Hg28 13% (Prevalent in Central Asia)"

Hg3 can be called an Euroasian halopgroup which is said to have originated in Ukraine during late glacial age. But in Northeast Europeans then Hg16 is very higly represented (in Russians 50%, Estonians 32.4%) except Polish in whom it is 2.4%."

Pashtuns are not of the same lineage as Arabs either according to haplogroups.

---------------Hg1---Hg2----Hg3----Hg9-----Hg21---Hg26----Hg 28

Pashtun------12-----16-----45------6--------2-------0.0----- --13
Israelite------8.4----6.3----1.4-----55.2-----20.3---7.0---- ---0.0
Palestinian---9.0----5.0----0.0-----51.0-----19.0---10.0---- --0.0
Syrian--------10.0-- 3.0----9.0-----57.0-----10.0---11.0-----0.0
Lebanese---- 0.0----13.4---4.0---- 46.0-----29.0---4.0------ 0.0
Saudi Arabia-5.0---- 5.0--- 19.0---33.0----- 5.0----38.0----- 0.0

As evident from the above data, Pashtun haplogroups are almost exclusively Hg1, Hg2, Hg3, and Hg28 whereas Middle Eastern populations like Israelites, Palestinians, etc. have Hg9, Hg21, and Hg26. Greek Y-chromosomes belong to haplogroups HG1, HG2, HG3, HG9, HG21 and HG26.

Hg2 is thought to have originated somwhere around Macedonia/Greece.

http://www.ias.ac.in/jgenet/Vol80No3/125.pdf - www.ias.ac.in/jgenet/Vol80No3/125.pdf

Hg3:

A change(mutation) occured in the Y-Chromosome of a people inhabiting the Euroasian steppes, i.e. the present Ukraine and the areas north to the Black Sea, at the end of late glacial period (some 14000 to 20000 years ago). Later, these people multiplied and migrated, spreading the changed Y-Chromosome over a wide area. The people carrying this specific mutation in their chromosome today are said to be in haplogroup 3 (Hg3). Both the Y-Chromosomes of Kashmiris and Pashtuns carry this same mutations and therefore they are in Hg3. This in effect means they originated from the same ancestor.

Hg2:

Another specific change occured, at the end of late glacial period, in the Y-Chromosome of a people that inhabited the Balkans. This mutation was later spread through migrations and increase in population. Today, the people carrying this particular mutation in their chromosomes are said to be in Hg2.

Hg1:

There were some people living in the caves of Iberian Penensula at the end of late glacial period. A particular type of mutation occured in their Y-Chromosomes. Today, the group of human beings carrying this mutation in their chromosome are said to be in haplogroup 1 (Hg1).

Hg28

HG 28 is frequent in Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent

I'd go for Pashtuns being a Ukrainian/Greek/Spanish/Central Asian mix (some have Far Eastern mixing too probably). Too much or sound about right?

 



Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 04:33

Hi and welcome to the Forum!

I'm affraid that I'm totally illeterate when it comes to understanding genetics, but I'm sure Maju would like to comment!

 



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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics

Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 09:20

The Kalash tribe in the North of Pakistan do claim to be direct descendants of Alexander the Great. Here's a couple of pictures, if you think they look Macedonian.



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 09:22


Posted By: Pilot
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 09:48

All of these Kalasha girls resemble Makedonians that i know and they live thousands of miles away. The languages are very close too.



Posted By: Leonidas
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 10:00
Welcome ScythianEmpire, Ive been hanging on to some of these studies myself Y-Chromosomal DNA Variation in Pakistan
2002

The kalash are more unique than anything and the Burusho, are not:
"the Hazaras and the other populations and also more clearly shows the distinctness of the Kalash and the Parsis. It is striking that the language isolate speaking Burusho and the Dravidian-speaking Brahuis do not stand out in these analyses."pg6

AS for the greek question:
"Three populations have possible origins from the armies of Alexander the Great:the Burusho, the Kalash, and the Pathans. Modern Greeks show a moderately high frequency of haplogroup 21 (28%; Rosser et al. 2000), but this haplogroup was not seen in either the Burusho or the Kalash sample and was found in only 2% of the Pathans, whereas the local haplogroup 28 was present at 17%, 25%, and 13%, respectively. Greek-admixture estimates of 0% were obtained for the Burusho and the Pathans, but figures of 20%40% were observed for the Kalash (table 3). In view of the absence of haplogroup 21, we ascribe this result either to drift in the frequencies of the other haplogroups, particularly haplogroups 2 and 1, or to the poor resolution of lineages within these haplogroups, resulting in distinct lineages being classified into the same paraphyletic haplogroups. Overall, no support for a Greek origin of their Y chromosomes was found, but this conclusion does require the assumption that modern Greeks are representative of Alexanders armies."pg15

In my opinion,  this would need more study, but you will find little "Greek" genes, in those area's. So far it needs bigger sample sizes, but determining anything that is uniqiuly "greek" and then, from over 2,000 years ago would be the real challenge. Considering we where pretty mixed all that way back in time.

"Where West Meets East: The Complex mtDNA Landscape of the Southwest and Central Asian Corridor"
2004
The kalash are of some sort of western orgin:
"Indeed, the western Eurasian presence in the Kalash population reaches a frequency of 100%, the most prevalent haplogroups being U4, (pre-HV)1, U2e, and J2."pg8

"The complexity of the peopling of the region is well illustrated by the Kalash population from the Hindu Kush valleys, where western Eurasian mtDNAs reach fixation with no detectable East or South Asian lineages (fig. 1 and table 2). Their outlying genetic position is seen in all analyses (table 3 and fig. 6). Moreover, although this population is composed of western Eurasian lineages, the most prevalent (i.e., U4, (pre-HV)1, U2e, and J2) are rare or absent in the surrounding populations and usually characterize populations from Eastern Europe, the Middle East, and the Caucasus (Macaulay etal. 1999; Richards et al. 2000; Tambets et al. 2000).
pg13

have been very isolated for a long time:
"PC2 essentially displays the outlier genetic position of the Makrani and the Kalash populations, who are separated from the rest of populations of the Iranian plateau and the Indus Valley."pg9

But cant prove or really disprove greek descent:
"It has been suggested that this population descends from Greeks or from Slavic peoples, and they claim descent from a place called Tsyam, possibly in Syria (Robertson 1896; Decker 1992). The strong effects of drift and the small population size make genetic inference about the geographic origin of the Kalash difficult. However, a western Eurasian origin for this population is likely, in view of their maternal lineages, which can ultimately be traced back to the Middle East."pg13

The greek/bactrain kingdoms would of left a bigger cultural/(linguistic?) legacy than actual genetic footprints, and it is on this level that the greek influence in that area should be looked at.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 15:35
Originally posted by Yiannis

Hi and welcome to the Forum!

I'm affraid that I'm totally illeterate when it comes to understanding genetics, but I'm sure Maju would like to comment!



Sure.

Just take in account that Y-chromosome haplogroups as mentioned by ScythianEmpire are at times a little confusing. Hg1, Hg2 and Hg26 are actually spread out between several groups (see http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=6619&PN=1 - http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=6619& ;PN=1 ). More  explicit though will be the following tree, contrasting three diferent notations:


Black roman numbers are a coherent notation of Underhill et al., 2000 and the one that came with this particular tree. Blue capital letters are the also coherent and most precise notation used by the University of Arizona ( http://ycc.biosci.arizona.edu/nomenclature_system/fig1.html - http://ycc.biosci.arizona.edu/nomenclature_system/fig1.html ). Red Hg+number are the very common notation used by several authors (2000, 2001), which seems to be incoherent (I have anotated some of the most outstanding incoherences using brackets).

Hg2 (or rather I, though not all Hg2 lineages are I) is a very old lineage that is not strictly associated with Northern Europe but rather it is widespread and it's though to originate in the Paleolithic Near East or Balcans. It is particularly prominent among Swedes, Ukranians, sud-Slavic peoples and Georgians. But it is common also among Sardinians, to say a Mediterranean people. Therefore it's identification with Northern Europe is not very accurate. It rather corresponds with Central Europe, understood it from Balcans to Scandinavia.

Hg1 is also a little incoherent and most of it, with Hg22, makes up the R1a group. This, as mentioned is typical of Western Europe but I can't say if the Asian lineages belong to R1a or other branches included under the confusing Hg1 tag.

Hg3 is a relative of Hg1 and this one is totally coherent with Arizona Univerity more precise nomenclature. It fully corresponds with R1b branch. It is not a NE European marker but rather an Eastern European and NW Asian marker, being dominant in Poland, Slovakia, Russia and some groups of the Indian subcontinent, among others.

But we shouldn't take any of these as IE markers but just as Paleolithic expansion/divergence markers. Hg3/R1b though culd have some connection with IE expansion later on, but this association can't be made linearly.

Said all that, I do yet agree with ScythianEmpire in that the Jewish ascendance of Pashtun seems more than dubious. Yet, they could have been Judaized at some time in the Middle Ages - they wouldn't be the only nation that has converted to Judaism (Khazars are a well known example, Falasha Ethiopians another, and in some sense Christian and Muslim nations are too).

I won't agree though with the concept of Ukrainian/Greek/Spanish/Central Asian mix unless you take it as a very lax reference. 45% of Hg3/R1a means that they are mostly of the Eastern European Paleolithic "nation", with much mixture of other lineages (typical of most peoples). Not much can be said about Hg1 and Hg2 without knowing which are their specific lineages.

...

Regardin Leonidas' post, it mus be specifically mentioned that, in the second half of his post, he's talking about another type of lineages: MtDNA, female lineages. Y chomosome lineages instead talk about the male ones and there's about a 50% of uncertainty even if considering both together, due to broken pure gender lineages.

In the mentioned MtDNA lineages, J (also called Jasmine) is thought to be original from Syria and spread out with Neolithic. U (also called Ursula) is speculated as original from the Balcans but it is a terribly old lineage dating back to before the Aurignacian expansion (c. 40,000 years ago). Both lineages are found in Europe but neither is dominant (48% of Europeans are H, original from Southern France), J is present in 17% of Europeans and U in 11%.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 17:53

 

Maju your posts on genetic threads are impressive.

One must remember that the bactrian Greeks were funneled into pakistan by the saka invasions. They founded the indo-greek kingdoms 180 Bc-10ad ruling pakistan for 190 years with their capital in Sialkot, Punjab. The continuity of their presence in the region can be detected  even longer under the rule of the Sakas and Kushanas (who called themselves Philhellenes) until 4th cent. Ad. Thats perhaps 600 years of continous presence (longer if you begin with alexander).  longer then anywhere outside Grecia Magna and Alexandria. But here they were seperated by thousands of miles and hostile empires, unable to return home even if they wanted to.It was only with the devestating Hunnish invasions of the 5th cent. that the records dissapear.And after this date we can only speculate of their presence among the Budddhist populations of which there are records. Reminants of  other groups of foreign  peoples are  found in pockets all over the region( hazara mongols, mikrani africans etc., as the social nature of the subcontinent promotes hetrogenicity). The recent earthquakes have also highlighted the remote and isolated nature of the region. It would not be surprising if there was a link between the Kailash and the Macedonian Greeks. Only further genetic research can shed light on this fascinating and often overlooked subject.

 

 

Gandhara school of Indo-Greek art

 

 

 



Posted By: amir khan
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 20:25

 

Who can say what is in the genetic substratum, but whatever the case the results are beautiful!

 



Posted By: Rakhsh
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 23:56

This has been an interesting forum, However I was a little sus and kinda shocked someone used blonde haired girls then calimint them to be Greeks, Greeks are not Blonde and western European looking, so many movies potrays Alexander as blonde and so on......

However as I told my classical studies and anceint Greek lecturers I do not agree he was Greek, Thracian yes, Macaedonean yes with some Persian mixed in since for 150 years it was part of the Persian Empire, and Persian nobility mixed with everyone, the satraps married royalty and nobles in the countries they governed or sent too.

But who cares His lineage, I still believe he was a Monster who destroyed one of the few times this region had peace, he conquered the Persian armies only to be conqured by Persian Culture......... and we have Greek litrature to back that up. Hvae a nice day everyone



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Never under estimate the predictablity of stupidity! - Bullet Tooth Tony


Posted By: Rakhsh
Date Posted: 04-Nov-2005 at 23:56
Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

The Kalash tribe in the North of Pakistan do claim to be direct descendants of Alexander the Great. Here's a couple of pictures, if you think they look Macedonian.

How do they look Macedonian????

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Never under estimate the predictablity of stupidity! - Bullet Tooth Tony


Posted By: Pilot
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 06:25

Something to do with the Y-Chromosomal / Macedonian connection.

 

 

http://www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi?artid=447589 - http://www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi?artid=44 7589



Posted By: Leonidas
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 08:24
  Rakhsh wrote:
"
I do not agree he was Greek, Thracian yes, Macaedonean yes with some Persian mixed in since for 150 years it was part of the Persian Empire, and Persian nobility mixed with everyone, the satraps married royalty and nobles in the countries they governed or sent too."

Can you prove this? His real dad could of been the milkman
Being greek has more to do with your culture/ language than a genetic background/lineage. The original greek(ish) speakers that invaded greece didnt leave a big gentic footprint themselves, the greeks are more related to older anadolian based sources on the genetic level. So your veiw based on pure geneological level if you could prove it, would be meaningless anyway.

"But who cares His lineage, I still believe he was a Monster who destroyed one of the few times this region had peace, "

Personally Im not a big fan of him as a person, but in his mind he only destroyed what was already destroyed by the persians in greece. He lived by the eye for an eye, and im sure he would of destroyed the egyptians had it been them that burnt athens down, instead he built them a city.

"
he conquered the Persian armies only to be conqured by Persian Culture......... and we have Greek litrature to back that up"

He was defeated by himself, and his exploits extended greek culture to india and even into buddhism. Im sure the greek litrature your talking about wouldnt of survived the times (and the churchs) if it wasnt so treasured in the middle east.


Posted By: Rakhsh
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 09:38

Uhmm what are you on about??? I spoke of no genetic stats, but being that according to Greek sources 1 million Persian Troops were stationed in Macedonia.... ohh Persians attack Greece for attack Sardis and other cities in Anatolia, they only punished the Greeks for buring Sardis and looting it..... Hellenic culture did not Survive in Persia for long. Even Greek sources written in his time disclaimed him to be Greek.

To call someone Great they must have accomplished and created something, this is my opinion and he created nothing.



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Never under estimate the predictablity of stupidity! - Bullet Tooth Tony


Posted By: Herschel
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 12:19
Rakhsh, your assumption that Alexander was part Persian is revisionist talk similar to the pan-Turanism discussion that Jews are now mostly of Turkish descent. Persians left no lasting impression on Greek culture or genetics as you assert. Also, you make the Greeks out to be evil because they disrupted a peace that the Persians imposed on various cultures. It was Persia who was picking fights with anyone and everyone, and they picked a fight they ended up regretting. 


Posted By: DayI
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 13:12
Originally posted by Herschel

Rakhsh, your assumption that Alexander was part Persian is revisionist talk similar to the pan-Turanism discussion that Jews are now mostly of Turkish descent. Persians left no lasting impression on Greek culture or genetics as you assert. Also, you make the Greeks out to be evil because they disrupted a peace that the Persians imposed on various cultures. It was Persia who was picking fights with anyone and everyone, and they picked a fight they ended up regretting. 
what the f*ck is this man? Every fascistic idea is assembled as pan-Turanizm!! Give me the source of that! Isnt that guy pan-farsizt, he seems to claim everything is persian?

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Bu mıntıka'nın Dayı'sı
http://imageshack.us - [IMG - http://www.allempires.com/forum/uploads/DayI/2006-03-17_164450_bscap021.jpg -


Posted By: Herschel
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 13:15
I didn't call him a Turk, I merely related it to Pan-Turkism. Don't get so uppity.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 13:22
these racial/genetics/origins threads with nationalist spins are getting really old.

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Posted By: DayI
Date Posted: 05-Nov-2005 at 13:29
Originally posted by Herschel

I didn't call him a Turk, I merely related it to Pan-Turkism. Don't get so uppity.
its first time i ever heard that jews are ethnically Turks or something, post me that link of that lie who whas spreaded by pan-Turanists as you say. Just source of that.

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Bu mıntıka'nın Dayı'sı
http://imageshack.us - [IMG - http://www.allempires.com/forum/uploads/DayI/2006-03-17_164450_bscap021.jpg -


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 02:55

 

Hi again. Thanks for the replies. The above haplomap shows the Pakistani Kalash group which was talked about above has a very similar haplogroup distribution as the Yugoslavian (former Macedonian) one. HG 28 seems to have found it's way into Kalash though, which probably isnt surprising, but for the three major haplogroups there's a good correlation. Perhaps there's some truth in them being direct descendants of the Macedonians after all.

There's very little HG9 in Pakistani Pathan and Kalash, which I'm assuming came from Arab migrations to the region. They probably came from the South, so Sindhis etc would have a high amount, though Kashmiris in the North have a high amount too.

Pakistani Kashmiri has no HG2, which I find odd (light blue). If the Macedonians went there there should be some. But I guess Alexander the Greats Empire didnt extend much past the Indus as shown.

http://library.thinkquest.org/10805/alexmap.html - http://library.thinkquest.org/10805/alexmap.html  

http://www.classbrain.com/art_cr/publish/pakistan_color_map.shtml - http://www.classbrain.com/art_cr/publish/pakistan_color_map. shtml  

Though if the Scythians migrated to the Kashmiri region to add to Haplogroup 3, they would have added some HG2 (blue) as well as HG3.  

Posted by Maju

I won't agree though with the concept of Ukrainian/Greek/Spanish/Central Asian mix unless you take it as a very lax reference. 45% of Hg3/R1a means that they are mostly of the Eastern European Paleolithic "nation", with much mixture of other lineages (typical of most peoples). Not much can be said about Hg1 and Hg2 without knowing which are their specific lineages.

I'm not sure what you mean by lax reference, or by Hg1 and Hg2 not having a specific lineage, i'll look it up later. What I'm thinking is this. It's very simplistic I know, very likely not the whole picture, but just something I thought up just now. Hg3 mutation originated somewhere around the Eurasian Steppes, Eastern Europe perhaps Slovakia, Poland or even Czech or Ukraine. I think this is the currently held view, the site of the Kurgan culture. Migrations from here began around 3000 BC.

Take the first instant of Alexander the Greats Army entering Pakistan and settling in the area. He marched as far East as Punjab, Eastern Pakistan. From what I know he didnt go into India, but the Greco Bactrian kingdom later expanded into some Northern areas of India. This would place, perhaps a fair amount of HG2 into the population (assuming the Yugo haplogroupings didnt change much over the years: if anyone knows the recent history of invasions into that area, that might help). It is believed by some that the Kalash tribe are direct descendants of Alexander the Great and their haplogroup charting is very similar to the Macedonian one in terms of the major three percentages. The rest of the Pakistani populations we know mixed up in the furture (from 400 BC to present). But the Kalash are a good example of Macedonian settlement in the region, so this was probably a major migration. The Scythians we know invaded around 200 or 400 years later, so they would have brought with them Haplogroup 3. This might be reflected in the increased HG 3 found in Pakistani Pathan but not in Kalash who claim to be a pure line of Alexander the Great (Macedonian). There was also a Hun invasion after that, though it looks as though only Pakistani Hazaras carry the genetic haplotgroup C of Mongols, they also claim to be direct descendants of Genghis Khan.

 

http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v72n3/024530/024530.text.html?erFrom=-9123523380586873369Guest - http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v72n3/0 24530/024530.text.html?erFrom=-9123523380586873369Guest  

The Scythians entered Pakistan around 100 AD, the Greeks around 400 BC. Obviously someone brought with them a large amount of Haplogroup 3 into the population. The following gives some suggested origins of Pathans and other Pakistani groups, also suggesting no Jewish origin for the Pathans/Kalash, though they also suggest no Greek origin.

http://www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi?artid=447589 - http://www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi?artid=44 7589  

However, they also say this is based on haplotype analysis of the Greek population and Alexander was Macedonian? Anyway, the Maced. entered Pakistan in about 400 BC or somewhere there, and this was later followed by the Scythians, so clearly they influenced the genetic make up of Pathans. However, the Kalash werent very much affected if this is true.



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 03:39

Originally posted by Zagros

these racial/genetics/origins threads with nationalist spins are getting really old.

You have a problem with kids on this forum too it seems  



Posted By: Jhangora
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 03:41
I agree with Zagros, lets discuss something new.

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Jai Badri Vishal


Posted By: Rakhsh
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 06:29
Yeah Close this topic I mean how can we take this seriously, and it seems like every topic I go to there is Some Turk claiming everyone is originally Turk....

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Never under estimate the predictablity of stupidity! - Bullet Tooth Tony


Posted By: Jhangora
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 06:34
Everyone is human I guess.Thats the LCD that joins us.

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Jai Badri Vishal


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 08:28
Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

Posted by Maju

I won't agree though with the concept of Ukrainian/Greek/Spanish/Central Asian mix unless you take it as a very lax reference. 45% of Hg3/R1a means that they are mostly of the Eastern European Paleolithic "nation", with much mixture of other lineages (typical of most peoples). Not much can be said about Hg1 and Hg2 without knowing which are their specific lineages.

I'm not sure what you mean by lax reference, or by Hg1 and Hg2 not having a specific lineage, i'll look it up later. What I'm thinking is this. It's very simplistic I know, very likely not the whole picture, but just something I thought up just now. Hg3 mutation originated somewhere around the Eurasian Steppes, Eastern Europe perhaps Slovakia, Poland or even Czech or Ukraine. I think this is the currently held view, the site of the Kurgan culture. Migrations from here began around 3000 BC.



The question is that most of the genetic makeup of all Eurasia was formed before all these migrations (rather invasions by minorities of warriors) happened. There is an important concept that you are ignoring: that peoples accomodate to their ruling elites and eventually lose their language and even part of their usages to that of the ruling aristocracy, which may well be foreigner. This doesn't happen always (China is probably the best anti-example) but happens in most cases.

Also the invading elites, tend to get mixed with the locals and eventually fuse with them.

So the genetic flow that you're talking about doesn't exist or rather is minimal and hardly detectable.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 09:47
Alright. You're confusing me since you are the Don of genetics on this forum. Are you saying there was no Scythian invasion that led to Scythian settlements, and eventual haplotype incorporation into the genome of what is modern day Pakistan?


Posted By: Jhangora
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 09:54

Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

Alright. You're confusing me since you are the Don of genetics on this forum. Are you saying there was no Scythian invasion that led to Scythian settlements, and eventual haplotype incorporation into the genome of what is modern day Pakistan?

N who R/Were the "Scythians".



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Jai Badri Vishal


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 11:49

"It is reasonably certain that at the beginning of the second millennium BCE, the speakers of the Proto-Indo-Iranian language moved from Ukraine to the southeast. From an archaeological point of view, their migration is attested in the change from the Yamnaya culture into the Andronovo culture.

They invaded the country that was later called Afghanistan, where they separated in an Iranian and an Indian branch. The first group settled in http://www.livius.org/ap-ark/arians/arians.html - Aria , a name that lives on in our word 'Iran', where they settled after 1000 BCE; the second group reached the Punjab c.1500 BCE.

http://www.livius.org/sao-sd/scythians/scythians.html - http://www.livius.org/sao-sd/scythians/scythians.html  

I'm speculating the Pashtuns are from the Iranian division of the Scythians mixed with the Greeks before them, or from the original migration down to the region (the "third" group). The Parthian Empire were probably one of these two Scythian groups which ruled over Pakistan for a period of time.



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 13:11

The distribution of HG 3 in Iran shows marked differences between western and eastern provinces (southwestern Caspian [3%] vs. eastern provinces [31%]) ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#fg1 - fig. 1B ), with a decreasing-frequency cline towards India (Pakistan [32%], northern India [26%]). When the very low frequencies of HG 3 in the Middle East (Hammer et al. http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#rf10 - 2000 ) are taken into account, the frequency pattern of HG 3 in southwestern Asia ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#tb1 - table 1 ) supports the idea that Indo-European speakers spread from Central Asia into modern Iran via an eastern-Caspian route, as well as into India.

http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.html?erFrom=2578114154671049651Guest - http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/0 02418/002418.html?erFrom=2578114154671049651Guest  

Suggesting HG3 went from Afghanistan (Pathan branch), West to Iran (Iranian branch), and also East to Pakistan (Punjab) and India (Indian branch).



Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 14:20

 

The Scythians were a proto-Turkic people residing in central Asia, also known as the Sakas, They contributed a large amount to the Slavic genepool of eastern Europe and pakistan/afghan and N/india. Vast hordes of these "barbarians" poured into the indus valley in the 1st cent. Ad, swamping the previous inhabitants in terms of numbers. Indeed, Pakistan and areas like Rajestan/gujerat are considered the most Scythian areas in the world. This may be seen in the genetic map above if Hg3 is a scythian marker. Perhaps genetically, these areas should more properly be considered turkic rather then indoid, if there is a difference between the two in the first place. Vast tribes like Gujars(khazars) are almost pure Turkic.

While a a general rule, I would agree with Maju and Cvalli-Sforza hypothesis that pre-existing populations settled in pre-history are little changed by small numbers of subsequent invaders(eg arabs in Sind), this is not case in areas where invaders were the first settlers. The area of pakistan known as punjab was a sparsely populated, thickly forested area at the time of Alexanders invasion. From this time on the Greeks founded numerous city colonies in the area (beucephalus, alexandria(uch sharif near lahore, taxila,Sialkot etc.). They even built city colonies in places with large preexisting populations like egypt (alexandria). Furthermore, unlike most other parts of the world, Hindu caste rigidity prevented large scale intermixing with the "Mlecchas". The Arab presence in southern Spain can still be detected in small amounts in the genetic background despite ethnic clensing policies of the Spanish. There are even clusters in the spanish mountains with a large moorish genotype(I forget the name of this community). While undeniably the Greek genepool has been diluted down to small amounts in Pathans etc., it may still be detectable in areas where there were significant Greek colonies, such as the areas around Taxilla and Sialkot,punjab in specific tribal subsections. This is an intriguing possibility for keen history enthusiasts. Ofcourse the difficulty is that both Scythian(majority pakistan I.E) and greek I.E share genetic I.E precursors, and so differentiating the two can be difficult. Similar case with Romans in Britain Perhaps enhanced genetic analysis techniques in the future will be more revealing.

 



Posted By: Afghanan
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 14:31

Saka spoke Indo-European languages, and languages related to Avestan.  Sialkot was the ancient Sakala/Sagala, not a Greek colony, but Indo-Scythian.

 

 



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The perceptive man is he who knows about himself, for in self-knowledge and insight lays knowledge of the holiest.
~ Khushal Khan Khattak


Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 14:58

 

Unquestionably they spoke an I.E language, however that does not exclude them from being genetic precursors to what were later called the central asian Turkic nations. You are confusing linguistic and genetic arguments. The scythian descendents in pakistan today speak indian languages and pashtuns an iranian language. However both have common precursors an a broad sense. Ofcourse there would have been a large I.E. element in those scythians but I believe this is a a central turkic trait. Those epthalite huns that invaded 5th cent.ad( also called white huns) were very caucasoid and iranic looking. So were those huns iranic or turkic. I think pashtuns are more turkic then iranian, it doesnt make pashtuns mongals necessarely.

 

Sialkot has a very ancient history going back to founding by raja sal of mahabarata fame. but was destroyed several times in history. at one time under House of Euthydemus and Menander, it was without question the epicenter of greek life in the subcontinent. However Alexanders biographers make no mention of a city on the eastern banks of chenab/hyphasis and yet they passed close to the area. 200 years later it was epicenter of indo-greek life. Later the sakas made it their capital as sakala and after them the huns capital under Mahirakula(famous for throwing elephants of cliffs for sport, nice!?). Who made this urban centre so important that its stayed for almost a thousand years. We can trace it back to the indo-greeks and no further.

And even if it was founded by someone else, there was a large greek presence/colony/settlement there



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 15:52
Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

Alright. You're confusing me since you are the Don of genetics on this forum. Are you saying there was no Scythian invasion that led to Scythian settlements, and eventual haplotype incorporation into the genome of what is modern day Pakistan?


No. I'm not saying that. What I'm saying is that you can hardly be sure that such a distribution of genetic groups is due to that migration or happened earlier. Scholars, as Cavalli-Sforza,  that not long ago suggested that this or that distribution fitted with this or that known prehistorical or protohistorical or even fully historical migration now accept that most of that distribution is likely to have happened in Paleolithic times when the human tribes spread across Eurasia and that only a very small part of those genetic distributions have been caused by any ulterior migration of any kind.

One can have doubts about  scarcely populated regions such as Central Asia, with a clearly nomadic way of life but for such old agricultural regions like Pakistan, take for sure that about 80-95% of their genome arrived in Paleolithic or Neolithic times. And most migrations came from nearby areas that share some or most of their patterns, so the change wouldn't be noticeable and, in any case, it's not just about saying this or that haplogroup belongs to this or that nation.

Then, regarding the Scythians, I challenge you to diferentiate them from other IE migrations such as that of Aryans. You won't find any significant difference - in the case that you can actually identify the Scythian genetic patterns, as they are an extinct nation and in their many migrations they must have mixed with many peoples.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 16:01
Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

The distribution of HG 3 in Iran shows marked differences between western and eastern provinces (southwestern Caspian [3%] vs. eastern provinces [31%]) ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#fg1 - - 2000 ) are taken into account, the frequency pattern of HG 3 in southwestern Asia ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#tb1 -
NO GOD, NO MASTER!



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 17:17
Originally posted by khalid bin walid

The Scythians were a proto-Turkic people residing in central Asia, also known as the Sakas, They contributed a large amount to the Slavic genepool of eastern Europe and pakistan/afghan and N/india.

From what I have read, the Sakas (Kazackstan) were one of four Scythian tribes. the others being Sarmatian (Georgia, Armenia, Azerbaijan) and moved to Hungary), Sauromatian (Ukraine), and Pazyryk (Siberian) tribes? Of these, Sarmatians were probably Turkic, as well as Sakas. The Sauromatians are believed to be Iranic people. There was probably a movement down South and the Iranic tribe went the Caspian Sea route though Afghanistan and the Turkic tribes went  via the Punjab and perhaps Kashmir into India (appears to lack Haplotype I and E, which is present in high quantities in Eastern European populations, at least one of these Haplotypes in present in Pathans). The Pakistani gene pool correlates well with the Eastern European gene pool (Rosser et al), so there's some evidence to suggest much of the pre-existing population Pakistani genome changed by the Scythian invaders, shown below (which is where certain people start getting excited ) ;the Slavic and Pakistani populations show a good correlation here, indicating that the pre-existing possibly Greek gene pool was changed by the Scythian invading population, comments?

 

 

 



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 17:38
Looking at the last chart, if the Scythians did settle in Iran also, the gene pool clearly did not become incorporated as much so as it did into the Pakistani gene pool, or perhaps it changed at a later date.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:05
This is going a little out of topic but all those names you mention are names of peoples claimed to be Scythians in one sense or the other. Scythians properly were an Indo European people (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scythians - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scythians ) probably related to Iranians and/or Traco-Phrygians. They were called Sakas in Iran (Scythian is the Greek name).

Sarmatians or Sauromatians are thought to be a local nord-Caucasian variation of the Scythians. The fact that Amazons are connected to these seem to evidence (at least for some) they were not purely an IE people but Indo-Europeized Caucasians.

Pazyrk is the name of a site and the corresponding culture of Altai that has been associated with the origins of Scythians.


Scythian warriors with characteristic hats simmilar to those of Phrygians and Persians.


Sarmatian cataphract


Horseman from Pazyrk culture

I think that the claims that connect Scythians and relatives with Turkic origins are plainly wrong.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:06
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by ScythianEmpire

The distribution of HG 3 in Iran shows marked differences between western and eastern provinces (southwestern Caspian [3%] vs. eastern provinces [31%]) ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#fg1 - fig. 1B ), with a decreasing-frequency cline towards India (Pakistan [32%], northern India [26%]). When the very low frequencies of HG 3 in the Middle East (Hammer et al. http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#rf10 - 2000 ) are taken into account, the frequency pattern of HG 3 in southwestern Asia ( http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.text.html#tb1 - table 1 ) supports the idea that Indo-European speakers spread from Central Asia into modern Iran via an eastern-Caspian route, as well as into India.

http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/002418/002418.html?erFrom=2578114154671049651Guest - http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v68n2/0 02418/002418.html?erFrom=2578114154671049651Guest  

Suggesting HG3 went from Afghanistan (Pathan branch), West to Iran (Iranian branch), and also East to Pakistan (Punjab) and India (Indian branch).



This is just an interpretation. There are many reasons to think that those haplogroups spread not with recent events but with much more ancient ones. The most desertic areas would be dificult to say, as there the population has always been small and semi-nomadic but in the rich agricultural areas of Pakistan and India or Western Iran, with strong sedentary populations, the post-Neolithic demographic change must have always been limited. Those genetic groups are therefore there since at least Neolithic times (and possibly before) but may have seen an increase (or decrease) in their proportion with Indo European (and other) migrations.

Well, I think there's good evidence that the Greeks added their haplotypes to the Pakistani population in 300 BC during the Greco Bactrian Empire, survived on by some tribes and others to a degree. However, I dont think you can be looking anymore ancient than 300 BC since it's pretty clear of the Greek cultural and haplotype input (which got subsequently over-ridden) into the Pakistani genome around that time (Kalash tribe, formation of cities etc). The Greek genes (phenotypes) of course would get mixed in with the Slavic genes.



Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:10

The Saka, Medians and Persians were the only tribes allowed to wear their swords in the Persepolis Apadana, they were different tribes of the same people. 

There is no Scythian gene.  Clearly they settled in Iran, we have a province named after them, Sistan (Sakastan).  Ancient Scythian were definately not Turkic speaking.  You post all of these picture of Light featured Pakistanis claiming they are descended from Scythians, well it makes sense, considering all of these people, such as the Pashtun's language (Iranic) is probably a derivative of ancient Scythian, it is in the same group as Ossetian, Eastern Iranian.  Ossetians/Alans live in the Caucasus and are widely accepted by Academia as being the descendants of Sarmatians.



-------------


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:25
Scythian empire: you're going to drive me crazy.

Well, I think there's good evidence that the Greeks added their haplotypes to the Pakistani population in 300 BC during the Greco Bactrian Empire, survived on by some tribes and others to a degree. However, I dont think you can be looking anymore ancient than 300 BC since it's pretty clear of the Greek cultural and haplotype input (which got subsequently over-ridden) into the Pakistani genome around that time (Kalash tribe, formation of cities etc)


Where is that "good evidence"? I see it nowhere in your many posts.





This is interesting but only means that Italians, Greeks and Iranians share a Mediterranean genotype (at least on the male side) and Slavs and Pakistanis share a Steppary genotype. Anyhow notice the diferences for some groups: Italians are very high in Hg1 (Western European) and Iranians in Hg2 (in Europe, Central European, understood from Scandinavia to the Balcans). But I insist that these genotypes expanded basically in Late Paleolithic (or maybe Neolithic) times and can't prove much about historical migrations.

Looking at the last chart, if the Scythians did settle in Iran also, the gene pool clearly did not become incorporated as much so as it did into the Pakistani gene pool, or perhaps it changed at a later date.


And how come such a stable population as Iranians were so widely disturbed and we know nothing about that from historical records? We know about Scythians migrating to Iran but we don't know of them provoking any massive genocide. Just another small but noticeable late arrival.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:40

 

I think cavalli-sforza neolithic argument is flawed at a certain level because it looks at the issue from a euro-centric(california,Berkley)) point of view. Europe had certain conditions that dont necessarily apply elsewhere. first europe had relativly large settled populations compared with relativly few external invaders(was always hard to invade), so hard to change the genotype dramaticlly. This is especially so as europe has always had an inclusive culture(intermixing is o.k), so  external genes quickly diluted(hungarians). Yet even he concedes that India generally is extremely hetrogenous(contrast with homogenous China or N Europe). However we all know of the numerous invasions through the khyber pass onto the plains of the Punjab.The Huns alone depopulated large tracts of the area. Also some  invasions were actually migrations, as these NATIONS were themselves fleeing other invaders(scythians fleeing huns), and must have come in significant numbers.

Take the example of the Iberia of the early middle ages. One comes across numerous examples of estremadura central spain regions which were cleared and repopulated. Whether this repopulation was the original population or not is irrelevant, as it shows that continuity of population is not always the rule, and one has to take account of the historical setting.

Further, the subcontinant is not homogenous as stated earlier, but should be considered as multiple nations living in the same space, interacting on some levels, and not on others(unfortunatly). This is not at all the case in Europe, for example. So it shouldnt be surprising to find large tribes of Scythian origin, living togather with others of neolithic origins. They wouldnt necessarly meld into a uniform modern pakistani nation, but would rather be reconisably distinct parts of it. For example, Makrani africans have been on pakistan coastline for a long time, but still look VERY African. The pashtuns have been migrating further into the frontier provance since the 15th cent. but still maintain their distinct phenotype, while displacing the previous population. Imran Khan, The famous personality, whose family has been in pakistan for quite a while still looks distinctly pashtun. There are 200,000 Parsis migrated to India a thousand years ago from Iran, yet they mostly still look Iranian, and have not been assimilated by the surrounding multitudes. Freddie Mercury was one of these and our iranian friends will attest to his iranian look, as opposed to the Surat region of India.

These arguments say that the neolithic argument can not always be the rule,but that one has to look at pre-existing population numbers, number of invaders, geography, nature of the invasion/migration, social structure of the relevant areas etc, and that while the neolithic argument is possible, one cant reject the Scythian theory on this basis alone.

You guys are so sure, but I dont see how you can be



Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 18:55

 

So how do you think the pakistani and slavic genepool got the similar markers, and not the iranians. Early I.E migrations also, come on!. Scythians came into the seistan provence of iran alone in large numbers, and then migrated further into Pakistan via the bolan pass where their brothers had settled previousy. Thus while western iranians differ from the pakistani population somewhat as shown by the results above, Afghanistan, Pakistan and Eastern Iran Seistan( maybe Khorasan also) are very scythic areas.



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 19:03

Originally posted by Maju

This is going a little out of topic but all those names you mention are names of peoples claimed to be Scythians in one sense or the other. Scythians properly were an Indo European people (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scythians - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scythians ) probably related to Iranians and/or Traco-Phrygians. They were called Sakas in Iran (Scythian is the Greek name).

Sarmatians or Sauromatians are thought to be a local nord-Caucasian variation of the Scythians. The fact that Amazons are connected to these seem to evidence (at least for some) they were not purely an IE people but Indo-Europeized Caucasians.

Pazyrk is the name of a site and the corresponding culture of Altai that has been associated with the origins of Scythians.


Scythian warriors with characteristic hats simmilar to those of Phrygians and Persians.


Sarmatian cataphract


Horseman from Pazyrk culture

I think that the claims that connect Scythians and relatives with Turkic origins are plainly wrong.

this was what I was referring to. You're probably right about them all being Iranic, some websites say the Kazak Scythians were Turkich.

the various Scythian tribes; especially the Saka, Sarmatian, Sauromatian, and Pazyryk cultures, extending from Transylvania in the west (where the Scythians had gold mines beginning in the 600s BC) to Mongolia in the east. The Scythians were an Indo-Iranian people http://home.earthlink.net/~ekerilaz/princess.html - http://home.earthlink.net/~ekerilaz/princess.html

We use the term Ukrainian Scythians to distinguish them from the culturally related Asian Pazyryk people in Siberia who were also called Scythians. http://www.geocities.com/amuse_amenace/scythia.htm - http://www.geocities.com/amuse_amenace/scythia.htm  

 

 



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 19:18
Originally posted by Zagros

There is no Scythian gene.  Clearly they settled in Iran, we have a province named after them, Sistan (Sakastan).  Ancient Scythian were definately not Turkic speaking.  You post all of these picture of Light featured Pakistanis claiming they are descended from Scythians, well it makes sense, considering all of these people, such as the Pashtun's language (Iranic) is probably a derivative of ancient Scythian, it is in the same group as Ossetian, Eastern Iranian.  Ossetians/Alans live in the Caucasus and are widely accepted by Academia as being the descendants of Sarmatians.

Alright, but the light featured Pakistani were the Kalash, who claim to be pure Macedonian. Anyway, that's not a big deal.

But I think that the Scythians have Slavic genetics, which quite clearly seems to correlate with Pakistani genetics. But again, there are different proportions of this in the population, and you cannot expect a perfect correlation unless there were only two invasions, Greek and Scythian. Clearly there were a lot more. It's not a stretch of the imagination to believe these were the main two invasions that upset the population genetics of Pakistan though.

As for Turkic origins of certain Scythian tribes, I said that from here.

"However, now there is some evidence which proves that some of the Bronze Age tribes, especially the Scythians, spoke proto-Turkic languages." http://expat.nursat.kz/?3299 - http://expat.nursat.kz/?3299  

That was my reason for saying that Kazak Scythians (which might have been Saka) were Turkic and why you get this Scythian input into India which clearly is not of the same haplotype as the Scythian input into the Pakistan Pathan region. Note that's in Kazakstan so this might only be one tribe. It's likely the Scythians werent completely homogenous, but did have some different cultures and why not origins.

Another reference which suggest the Sakas were not synonymous with the term Scythian is the following suggesting it forms a part of the Scythian population.

"Around 500 BC the territory of present-day southern Kazakhstan was inhabited by the Saka, nomadic people considered as a part of the vast network of Scythian cultures." http://www.sitara.com/kazak/history.html - http://www.sitara.com/kazak/history.html  



Posted By: amir khan
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 19:40

Maju:

"I think that the claims that connect Scythians and relatives with Turkic origins are plainly wrong"

 

The initial suggestion was the other way round(proto-turkic), that the Scythian genes contributed to a large degree to the gene pool of turkic peoples in central asia, and later became the turkic nations in that region. Same as slavs and the pakistanis. It is in these nations that you will find the scythian genes, and not in iranians as much, although their origins are not dissimilar altogather.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 20:07
Originally posted by amir khan

Maju:

"I think that the claims that connect Scythians and relatives with Turkic origins are plainly wrong"

 

The initial suggestion was the other way round(proto-turkic), that the Scythian genes contributed to a large degree to the gene pool of turkic peoples in central asia, and later became the turkic nations in that region. Same as slavs and the pakistanis. It is in these nations that you will find the scythian genes, and not in iranians as much, although their origins are not dissimilar altogather.



Ok. I can agree with that. I understood that ScythianEmpire meant that some Scythians were Turkic.

But anyhow be very carful with assuming things from genetic data. We know only something about some part of recent human history. We don't have the full picture where to fix those data. For instance, modern Iranians of Southern Asia can well not be representative of proto-Iranians and Scythians of the steppes, so the genes that you assume as Iranian could be, let's say, Elamites that migrated northwards in earlier and less known periods (it's just an example: I don't mean it was that way).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2005 at 20:57
Originally posted by khalid bin walid

 

I think cavalli-sforza neolithic argument is flawed at a certain level because it looks at the issue from a euro-centric(california,Berkley)) point of view. Europe had certain conditions that dont necessarily apply elsewhere. first europe had relativly large settled populations compared with relativly few external invaders(was always hard to invade), so hard to change the genotype dramaticlly. This is especially so as europe has always had an inclusive culture(intermixing is o.k), so  external genes quickly diluted(hungarians). Yet even he concedes that India generally is extremely hetrogenous(contrast with homogenous China or N Europe). However we all know of the numerous invasions through the khyber pass onto the plains of the Punjab.The Huns alone depopulated large tracts of the area. Also some  invasions were actually migrations, as these NATIONS were themselves fleeing other invaders(scythians fleeing huns), and must have come in significant numbers.


You have some point but only some. Europe was never more evolved agriculturally than Pakistan-India and it was actually more easy to invade: the nomadic IE tribes were right there in Eastern Europe / Central Asia, with no phsical obstacle like the Khyber pass or the Central Asian deserts separating them from their European prey. They just had to roll over.

Actually Central Europe suffered IE invasions sooner than Southern Asia. But the proccess was complex: a tribe settles there (East Germany, Poland), then 500 years pass through, then another wave comes but the "native" Western IEs assimilate them, then all together expand to all the region... At least this is what I have concluded from my readings on European late Prehistory / Archaeology.

But I guess simmilar porccesses could well have happened in Southern Asia, though I'm much less knowledgeable.

Anyhow, in the case of Europe at least, it is clear that IE invasions spreaded westward Eastern European / Steppary genes (for instance Hg3/R1b). But this is only clearly strong in Poland and Slovakia. Poland had a realtively low native ("Danubian") population and Slovakia was mostly desertic (only the lowlands were inhabited). Poland also happened to be the main reciever of these successive waves of invaders/migrants. Ukraine, instead, that also beared the main load of being frontier, was much more solidly populated and it shows a strong Hg2 component.

In any case, your suggestion that a limited number of succesive waves of invaders could alter to such degree the nature of the genetic pool of Pakistan can't but be met with high skespticism. Pakistan was before IE invasions one of the most outstanding and evolved cultures we know of. It's truly hard to believe that the original inhabitants were massacred and new peoples settled the area instead. Even with the caste system, they needed Sudra peasants to work the fields, and these would have always be the vast majority of the population, due to simple economic requirements.

Take the example of the Iberia of the early middle ages. One comes across numerous examples of estremadura central spain regions which were cleared and repopulated. Whether this repopulation was the original population or not is irrelevant, as it shows that continuity of population is not always the rule, and one has to take account of the historical setting.

A relatively large strip was considered depopulated but the succesive repopulations didn't actually modify substantially the genetics of the area as they came all from nearby districts. I don't think the example of such a relatively small mark is valid at all. Obviously there have always been scarcely or nully populated areas in the borders between nations but that doesn't afect the genetic makeup of larger regions, as the eventual colonists came almost invariably from just a few kilometers or maybe tens of kilometers away.

Further, the subcontinant is not homogenous as stated earlier, but should be considered as multiple nations living in the same space, interacting on some levels, and not on others(unfortunatly). This is not at all the case in Europe, for example. So it shouldnt be surprising to find large tribes of Scythian origin, living togather with others of neolithic origins. They wouldnt necessarly meld into a uniform modern pakistani nation, but would rather be reconisably distinct parts of it. For example, Makrani africans have been on pakistan coastline for a long time, but still look VERY African. The pashtuns have been migrating further into the frontier provance since the 15th cent. but still maintain their distinct phenotype, while displacing the previous population. Imran Khan, The famous personality, whose family has been in pakistan for quite a while still looks distinctly pashtun. There are 200,000 Parsis migrated to India a thousand years ago from Iran, yet they mostly still look Iranian, and have not been assimilated by the surrounding multitudes. Freddie Mercury was one of these and our iranian friends will attest to his iranian look, as opposed to the Surat region of India.

Maybe. Still I suspect that diferent clans tend to intermarriage when they live together. Alternatively (even if we look at it with strong rejection), rape may be another way of effectively achieve intermixing in some specific contexts. All anthropological studies I've read about diferent peoples in diferent parts of the world show patterns of social movility between groups. A person that belongs to a clan of sedentary peasants becomes one among the nomad camel herders when he buys some camels and changes his lifestyle. This situation may be temporal or definitive. As centuries pass through the genetics of each group is altered, tough both remain somehow distinct in the cultural level (and possibly also in the genetic level). Even if the caste system of India may be a limitation to this movility, it actually happens.

I was precisely reading before on Parsis and how they marry outside their communities and they consider women who outmarry not to be anymore Parsis and women from other extractions that marry Parsi men to be of their group. So even Freddy Mercury is likely to have some non-Parsi ancestors. (Btw, I had no idea that Mercury was of Parsi origins ).

These arguments say that the neolithic argument can not always be the rule,but that one has to look at pre-existing population numbers, number of invaders, geography, nature of the invasion/migration, social structure of the relevant areas etc, and that while the neolithic argument is possible, one cant reject the Scythian theory on this basis alone.

You guys are so sure, but I dont see how you can be



Actually the fact is that the "Neolithic argument" is fading but not for the Metal Ages' invasions but for the every day more clear continuance of the Paleolithic substrate, only slightly modified or "sharpened" by Neolithic migrations.

This was discussed in other topics and it actually both surprised and pleased me to find out, as I did suspect that the Neolithic argument of Cavalli-Sforza was lacking (too many "Neolithics" among Basques). Cavalli-Sforza himself has recently accepted the argumentations of other colleagues in favor of the Paleolithic persistence.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Jhangora
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 02:40

To confuse this thread a bit  more I'd like to present some information.I hope none of the members engaged in this discussion r offended.My honest intention is just to confuse u a bit more incase u arn't already.

The story goes something like this.

 

Indian National Calendar

 

{Saka Samvat}

 

Definition
The national calendar in used in India at the present time is the one defined by the Calendar Reform Committee. It is applied since March 22, 1957 (1 Chaitra 1879 of the Saka era). The numbering of the year is made in the Saka era.
The months of the indian calendar are as follows:

Months of                             Gregorian date of the
the indian calendar                    first of the month

Chaitra    (30 ou 31(*) days)          March 22 or 21(*)
Vaisakha   (31 days)                   April 21 
Jyaistha   (31 days)                   May 22
Asadha     (31 days)                   June 22 
Sravana    (31 days)                   July 23 
Bhadra     (31 days)                   August 23 
Asvina     (30 days)                   September 23 
Kartika    (30 days)                   October 23 
Agrahayana (30 days)                   November 22 
Pausa      (30 days)                   December 22 
Magha      (30 days)                   January 21 
Phalguna   (30 days)                   Frbruary 20

(*): for the leap years

The rules for the leap years is the same than for the Gregorian calendar

http://lychnis.imcce.fr/Granpub/calendriers_eng.html#Indian - http://lychnis.imcce.fr/Granpub/calendriers_eng.html#Indian

I know claim that  "I am an Indian n my country's national calendar is the saka calendar,therefore I am more Saka/Scythian than any of U".

It doesn't matter to me whether the Saka were proto-turkic / proto-aryan/proto-whatever n which language they spoke.

Would anyone like to split hairs here.

I'm sorry incase I hurt anyone's sentiments.I just wanna have a discussion.



-------------
Jai Badri Vishal


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 05:31
Originally posted by katulakatula

To confuse this thread a bit  more I'd like to present some information.I hope none of the members engaged in this discussion r offended.My honest intention is just to confuse u a bit more incase u arn't already.

The story goes something like this.

 

Indian National Calendar

 

{Saka Samvat}

 

Definition
The national calendar in used in India at the present time is the one defined by the Calendar Reform Committee. It is applied since March 22, 1957 (1 Chaitra 1879 of the Saka era). The numbering of the year is made in the Saka era.
The months of the indian calendar are as follows:

Months of                             Gregorian date of the
the indian calendar                    first of the month

Chaitra    (30 ou 31(*) days)          March 22 or 21(*)
Vaisakha   (31 days)                   April 21 
Jyaistha   (31 days)                   May 22
Asadha     (31 days)                   June 22 
Sravana    (31 days)                   July 23 
Bhadra     (31 days)                   August 23 
Asvina     (30 days)                   September 23 
Kartika    (30 days)                   October 23 
Agrahayana (30 days)                   November 22 
Pausa      (30 days)                   December 22 
Magha      (30 days)                   January 21 
Phalguna   (30 days)                   Frbruary 20

(*): for the leap years

The rules for the leap years is the same than for the Gregorian calendar

http://lychnis.imcce.fr/Granpub/calendriers_eng.html#Indian - http://lychnis.imcce.fr/Granpub/calendriers_eng.html#Indian

I know claim that  "I am an Indian n my country's national calendar is the saka calendar,therefore I am more Saka/Scythian than any of U".

It doesn't matter to me whether the Saka were proto-turkic / proto-aryan/proto-whatever n which language they spoke.

Would anyone like to split hairs here.

I'm sorry incase I hurt anyone's sentiments.I just wanna have a discussion.

There's no doubt some of the Northern Indian areas do have Saka influence. But this was probably through a different tribe of Scythians to the ones from Afghanistan and probably most of Pakistan. A wild guess is the central Asian Scythian tribes (Kazaks who might have been proto-Turkic) were Sakas that migrated South towards India, the Slavic Scythians (who were proto-Iranian) migrated to Afghanistan where the Pathans were living (this would be why the haplogrouping of Slavs and Pakistanis are similar). The Pashto language itself is an Iranic language, the language of the Slavic Scythians would have been proto-Iranic.

One bit of evidence that has been quoted for this is the lack of Haplogroup I and E from Indian populations. "However haplogroups H, J2, R1b and L are also found in populations of http://www.freedomsailing.com/Iran - Iran , http://www.freedomsailing.com/Pakistan - Pakistan , Central Asia and http://www.freedomsailing.com/India - India , and the idea that R1a1 originates from Kurgan Culture is questionable, since there seem to be a complete absence of haplogroup I and E in India (although it is common in http://www.freedomsailing.com/Europe - Europe , particularly http://www.freedomsailing.com/Ukraine - Ukraine ).
http://www.freedomsailing.com/Scythia - http://www.freedomsailing.com/Scythia

Also the Greek influence looks to be different, though these might be accounted for by differences in category of Scythian influence, as well as time scale of Greek presence as well as occurences of densely populated capital/city centers. The M170 and M35 mutations account for >30% Greeks/Macedonians, though is lacking in modern day India, but us found at 16% in Pathans, 9% in Sindhis. I know the Greek Empire expanded into India, but also Alexander the Great didnt go passed Jhelum in Punjab. This later expansion may not have been as integral as the former one and out of a total of 400 years of Greek rule, the Pathans would have been under this for the full 400, the Eastern parts of India, Uttar Pradesh area, would have been for perhaps 280 years probably.

Alexander the Great's Empire (320 BC), showing him reach as far as the Indus (modern day Pakistan)

Expansion of the Greek kingdom established by Alexander (180BC)

 

The M170 and M35 line not present in India is suggested (though not proved with certainty) here http://evolutsioon.ut.ee/publications/Kivisild2003b.pdf - http://evolutsioon.ut.ee/publications/Kivisild2003b.pdf  

The M170 and M35 mutations presence in Pathan and Sindhi population all I could find was the following text.

"The (M170) mutation is most frequent in central Eastern Europe, at 45 % in Croats and 49% in Yugoslavs (Rosser et. al., 2000) and also occurs in the Basques that have accumulated a subsequent mutation (M26) that distinguishes Eu8 (Semino et. al., 2000). It is also present on the Indian sub-continent; Pathan and Sindhi in Pakistan show a frequency of 16% and 9% (Qamar et. al., 2002).
Source : Relationships between Indian Populations and Europeans. - Joseph Skulj, Jagdish C. Sharda, Snejina Sonina, Petr Jandacek - (Hindu Institute of Learning).
Y Chromosomal Diversity in Europe is clinal and influenced primarily by geography, rather than by language. Rosser Z.H, Zerjal T, Hurles ME, et al (2000).



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 06:45
Originally posted by Maju

[QUOTE=khalid bin walid]

In any case, your suggestion that a limited number of succesive waves of invaders could alter to such degree the nature of the genetic pool of Pakistan can't but be met with high skespticism. Pakistan was before IE invasions one of the most outstanding and evolved cultures we know of. It's truly hard to believe that the original inhabitants were massacred and new peoples settled the area instead. Even with the caste system, they needed Sudra peasants to work the fields, and these would have always be the vast majority of the population, due to simple economic requirements.

The inhabitants need not have been massacred, if wave after wave of mass immigration occurred (which would have been politically correct since the Greeks and then the Scythians ruled at the time), then why could this not alter the population genetics drastically?

Perhaps, what is surprising is the Hun invaders (possibly central asian origins), nor the Mongols, who followed the Scythians into Pakistan did not leave their genetic footprint (except Hazaras but they claim direct descendency to Genghis Khan). These were supposed barbarous invaders but I do not think the Mongols settled or migrated into the area, though it's suggested the Huns did migrate into the area in masses over a couple of centuries (the Gurjaras also migrated into the area from central asia, possibly to Gujarat). It doesnt seem that this Hun migration had much of an effect on the Pakistani genotype though.

Genetic footprint of Mongols is absent from modern day Pakistan

 



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 08:57
Human Genetics
Publisher: Springer-Verlag GmbH
ISSN: 0340-6717 (Paper) 1432-1203 (Online)
DOI: 10.1007/s00439-004-1094-x
Issue:  Volume 114, Number 5
Date:  April 2004
Pages: 484 - 490

Original Investigation

Atika Mansoor1, Kehkashan Mazhar1, Shagufta Khaliq1, Abdul Hameed1, Sadia Rehman1, Saima Siddiqi1, Myrto Papaioannou2, L. L. Cavalli-Sforza3, S. Qasim Mehdi1 and Qasim Ayub1  http://www.springerlink.com/app/home/contribution.asp?wasp=9befe06ae5fd45e0b256418366403f9e&referrer=parent&backto=issue,8,14;journal,16,113;linkingpublicationresults,1:100421,1#ContactOfAuthor10">Contact Information

(1)  Biomedical and Genetic Engineering Division, Dr. A.Q. Khan Research Laboratories, G.P.O. Box 2891, 44000 Islamabad, Pakistan
(2)  Unit of Prenatal Diagnosis, Center for Thalassemia, Laiko General Hospital, 115 27 Athens, Greece
(3)  Department of Genetics, Stanford University, Stanford, CA 94305, USA

Received: 8 August 2003  Accepted: 24 January 2004  Published online: 25 February 2004

Abstract 
Three populations from northern Pakistan, the Burusho, Kalash, and Pathan, claim descent from soldiers left behind by Alexander the Great after his invasion of the Indo-Pak subcontinent. In order to investigate their genetic relationships, we analyzed nine Alu insertion polymorphisms and 113 autosomal microsatellites in the extant Pakistani and Greek populations. Principal component, phylogenetic, and structure analyses show that the Kalash are genetically distinct, and that the Burusho and Pathan populations are genetically close to each other and the Greek population. Admixture estimates suggest a small Greek contribution to the genetic pool of the Burusho and Pathan and demonstrate that these two northern Pakistani populations share a common Indo-European gene pool that probably predates Alexanderrsquos invasion. The genetically isolated Kalash population may represent the genetic pool of ancestral Eurasian populations of Central Asia or early Indo-European nomadic pastoral tribes that became sequestered in the valleys of the Hindu Kush Mountains.

Some people have commented on this paper, which I realize what you're on about now with Cavelli-Sforza. Some Pathans do believe they are descendants of soldiers of Alexander the Great. However, the paper is inaccurate since the Kalash believe they are the immediate descendants of Alexander the Great himself.

It says the Kalash are genetically distinct to Pathans. That is fair enough. I dont think the Kalash and Pathans are the same people. Also Alexander the Great was a Macedonian. Yugoslav haplotypes are certainly different to Greek, so you'd expect the Kalash (Macedonian possibly) to differ from Pathan (Greek/Slavic possibly). However, this assumes that the Greek and Macedonian populations havent changed their haplotypes over the last 2000 years which may or not be true.
 
Of course Pathans dont claim direct descendency from Alexander the Great, a Macedonian, but from his soldiers, which were in part Greek. So it's no surprise there is a correlation between Greek and Pathan DNA. It says the admixture estimate shows a small contribution from the Greeks, but clearly the Scythian influence was very strong in the Pathan, strong enough to nearly eradicate the Greek Y chromosome (which determines sex mainly I think), from the population.
 
The common Indo-European genepool predating Alexander is probably referring to the Scythian impact on the genepool. Why they conclude the Kalash are probably from Central Asia is not clear. They look certainly more European as stated in the Leonidas's post I think it was with MtDNA. I cant get the full paper though..


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 10:55

dude alexander and his soldiers were greek

need we go back to square 1 with this??



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Posted By: DayI
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 11:20
Yakut people original name is "Saha" and "Saka", yakut is gave by russians.

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Bu mıntıka'nın Dayı'sı
http://imageshack.us - [IMG - http://www.allempires.com/forum/uploads/DayI/2006-03-17_164450_bscap021.jpg -


Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 11:28
Originally posted by hansel

dude alexander and his soldiers were greek

need we go back to square 1 with this??

Alright, Northern Greece. Thessaloniki. But this is right on the border between Greece and former Yugoslavia. Alexander's soldiers were Greek and Macedonian. The Kalash are supposedly derived from this one Greek or Macedonian however you want to describe him. Sforza found the Y chromosome of the Kalashes was not the same as the Y chromosome distribution of the Pathans. No big surprise. Sforza's initial premise is wrong. The Kalash claim descendency not from Greeks but from Alexander. You say he's a Greek, but how represetative is Northern Greece of the Greek population? If anyone can see his paper, where did he take his samples from, all over Greece or northern Greece?



Posted By: khalid bin walid
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 11:44

 

Thanks for your detailed response Maju. My suggestions were intended to open the possibility that Paleolithic settlements continuing until the present day MAY not be a universal law. Although I agree it holds for a majority of cases as does the multi-centric regional evolutionary model in general, there are exceptions. IF collected data suggests otherwise in specific settings, we must examine the alternatives with an open mind.

The Harrapa civilization of ancient Pakistan is undoubtably one of the great ancient river valley cultures, together with Nile and Mesopotamia(maybe china also), It covered a larger area then Egypt or Iraq.But suddenly such a widespread culture dissapeared without trace, their well preserved, grid planned cities were suddenly abondened.No one took over, noone reused the meterials. Some say it was due to plate tectonics, others, rivers drying up. For mellinia nothing of any note can be found after them. People dont suddenly stop living this high urban culture and take up living in nearby  rural areas without a trace for thousands of years. On either side aryan cultures of Iran and Ganges India grew. Maybe they migrated elsewhere, we just dont know, and shouldnt ASSUME anything.

Extent of Indus Valley civilization

   Indus valley seals - 3000BC

 

Let us now consider the impact of scythian migrants to this area.

The PERIPLUS DOCUMENT was written in the 1st cent. AD by a greek sailor sent to investigate along the coast of Pakistan and further east.

As a greek he would be somewhat familiar with the region, through Alexander, Megasthenes amd the Indo-greek kingdoms. He describes the area in some detail and specifically mentions the country around the Indus river delta which he calls SCYTHIA ruled by PARTHIAN princes.

38." Beyond this region, the continent making a wide curve from the east across the depths of the bays, there follows the coast district of Scythia, which lies above toward the north; the whole marshy; from which flows down the river Sinthus, the greatest of all the rivers that flow into the Erythraean Sea, bringing down an enormous volume of water; so that a long. way out at sea, before reaching this country, the water of the ocean is fresh from it. Now as a sign of approach to this country to those coming from the sea, there are serpents coming forth from the depths to meet you; and a sign of the places just mentioned and in Persia, are those called graoe. This river has seven mouths, very shallow and marshy, so that they are not navigable, except the one in the middle; at which by the shore, is the market-town, Barbaricum. Before it there lies a small island, and inland behind it is the metropolis of Scythia, Minnagara; it is subject to Parthian princes who are constantly driving each other out."

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html - http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/ancient/periplus.html

He clearly describes this coastline as that of Scythia, and not just one city as scythia but the entire country as Scythia, of which the metropolis was minnagara (modern Karachi?-Hydrabad?). He is very specific and if it was named after a few elite nobility he would have called it Parthia or some derivative of it. He describes an overwhelmingly Scythian nation ruled by Parthian princes. This corresponds with numismatist evidence of the region.

I will concede that the present Pakistanis are not IDENTICAL to those ancient Scythians, as all nations are subject to slow change over time.But they are their best modern inheritors.  And this small influx of "indian" genes may lead some to make erroneous conclusions based on phenotype. You will appreicate that Phenotype is not always a great indicator of genotype, despite the assumptions of lay people. Especially when there are only subtle differences between the all nations of the region  in the first place. A large component of  modern Pakistani genes were established by those hordes of Scythian migrants who arrived at the beginning of our era, with small earlier and later "flavouring"



Posted By: ScythianEmpire
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 12:37

Originally posted by Leonidas

Welcome ScythianEmpire, Ive been hanging on to some of these studies myself Y-­Chromosomal DNA Variation in Pakistan
2002

The kalash are more unique than anything and the Burusho, are not:
"the Hazaras and the other populations and also more clearly shows the distinctness of the Kalash and the Parsis. It is striking that the language isolate speaking Burusho and the Dravidian-speaking Brahuis do not stand out in these analyses."pg6

AS for the greek question:
"Three populations have possible origins from the armies of Alexander the Great:the Burusho, the Kalash, and the Pathans. Modern Greeks show a moderately high frequency of haplogroup 21 (28%; Rosser et al. 2000), but this haplogroup was not seen in either the Burusho or the Kalash sample and was found in only 2% of the Pathans, whereas the local haplogroup 28 was present at 17%, 25%, and 13%, respectively. Greek-admixture estimates of 0% were obtained for the Burusho and the Pathans, but figures of 20%40% were observed for the Kalash (table 3). In view of the absence of haplogroup 21, we ascribe this result either to drift in the frequencies of the other haplogroups, particularly haplogroups 2 and 1, or to the poor resolution of lineages within these haplogroups, resulting in distinct lineages being classified into the same paraphyletic haplogroups. Overall, no support for a Greek origin of their Y chromosomes was found, but this conclusion does require the assumption that modern Greeks are representative of Alexanders armies."pg15

Alexander's Army was Macedonian and Greek. Modern people from the former Yugoslav republics and Greece would have made his Army up. So the assumption made is wrong. Macedonia in Alexander's time incorporated parts of modern day Greece. In fact the Kalash haplogrouping is very alike with the Yugoslavian haplogroupings. I dont like that paper.




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