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How would the Brittish, French or Dutch have ruled differently?

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: History of the Americas
Forum Discription: The Americas: History from pre-Colombian times to the present
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=9527
Printed Date: 20-Apr-2024 at 07:41
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Topic: How would the Brittish, French or Dutch have ruled differently?
Posted By: kermit_criminal
Subject: How would the Brittish, French or Dutch have ruled differently?
Date Posted: 25-Feb-2006 at 19:05
Instead of the spanish, who made it a point to annhialate local society, religion, language, written text/documents, culture in order to force Catholocism and Spanish apon the natives. The Brittish and Dutch however were more worried about making money and were not ruled by the Catholic Church. Would "Mexico" and "Peru/Bolivia/Chile/Equador" have been able to preserve their native culture much like India, Brunei, Indonesia, Egypt etc... had it been the Dutch or Brittish to rule over "latin america"?



Replies:
Posted By: Voyager
Date Posted: 25-Feb-2006 at 20:37
Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Instead of the spanish, who made it a point to annhialate local society, religion, language, written text/documents, culture in order to force Catholocism and Spanish apon the natives. The Brittish and Dutch however were more worried about making money and were not ruled by the Catholic Church. Would "Mexico" and "Peru/Bolivia/Chile/Equador" have been able to preserve their native culture much like India, Brunei, Indonesia, Egypt etc... had it been the Dutch or Brittish to rule over "latin america"?

This is a joke, right?
Are you trying to paint Northern Europeans as better than the Spanish?
Just look to the British colonisation in North America. What do you think they did to the Indians? Kissed and hugged them?



Posted By: merced12
Date Posted: 25-Feb-2006 at 20:45

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Instead of the spanish, who made it a point to annhialate local society, religion, language, written text/documents, culture in order to force Catholocism and Spanish apon the natives. The Brittish and Dutch however were more worried about making money and were not ruled by the Catholic Church. Would "Mexico" and "Peru/Bolivia/Chile/Equador" have been able to preserve their native culture much like India, Brunei, Indonesia, Egypt etc... had it been the Dutch or Brittish to rule over "latin america"?

Are you kidding?



-------------
http://www.turks.org.uk/ - http://www.turks.org.uk/
16th century world;
Ottomans all Roman orients
Safavids in Persia
Babur in india
`azerbaycan bayragini karabagdan asacagim``


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 25-Feb-2006 at 22:32
English colonization? Look at India, Nigeria or (in the worst case) the USA or Australia.

Dutch colonization? Look at South Africa or Indonesia.

French was maybe the only one to offer some hope. They put so many difficulties to emigration that their colonization was minimalistic. They also send many missionaries to make the tribes their vassals. They were more constructive in that sense, at least in North America.

But in the Caribbean all acted equally: Santo Domingo, Haiti, Jamaica, Curaçao... are they much different?

What I question is that any of these powers wanted to conquer the Aztecs at all... but you never know. Most likely they would have tried to extort them and buy them slaves for their plantations while exchanging gold for trinkets...

I think they would very simmilar to Spanish, only that the Spanish showed some sort of conquering determintion that maybe the others would have lacked initially.

What about the Chinese?


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 26-Feb-2006 at 19:09

Originally posted by Voyager

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Instead of the spanish, who made it a point to annhialate local society, religion, language, written text/documents, culture in order to force Catholocism and Spanish apon the natives. The Brittish and Dutch however were more worried about making money and were not ruled by the Catholic Church. Would "Mexico" and "Peru/Bolivia/Chile/Equador" have been able to preserve their native culture much like India, Brunei, Indonesia, Egypt etc... had it been the Dutch or Brittish to rule over "latin america"?

This is a joke, right?
Are you trying to paint Northern Europeans as better than the Spanish?
Just look to the British colonisation in North America. What do you think they did to the Indians? Kissed and hugged them?

 

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Feb-2006 at 21:43
Originally posted by kermit_criminal

 

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.



Can't compare: the British only conquered India in the 19th century, with merely commercial purposes and with all the bagagge of 4 previous centuries of European imperialism.

If you want to evaluate a prossible early British colonization, look at the USA, where colonists and plantation slavists simply took over the natives' lands. True that they stabilished the line of the Apalachians but that was mainly because they had started fearing their own colonists.

While the Spaniards acted like fanatics, they were not so much land hungry: they wanted gold and souls, the British wanted land and gold and the natives were in their way equally.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Voyager
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2006 at 06:56
Originally posted by kermit_criminal

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.



Study better history instead of insisting in your racist agenda that northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans. All Europeans that went to America considered the Indians as savages, because the latter’s culture was completely different from what was considered civilisation in Europe. On the other side, Europeans considered Asians as civilised and in some aspects superior to the Europeans. That is why the Europeans (and not just the English, since the Portuguese were already in Asia since 1498) studied carefully many cultural aspects of Asia.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2006 at 07:03
Study better history instead of insisting in your racist agenda that northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans.

He never said northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans. Calm down your tone please.


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Posted By: Voyager
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2006 at 07:34
Originally posted by Mixcoatl

Study better history instead of insisting in your racist agenda that northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans.

He never said northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans. Calm down your tone please.

He didn't need to explicitly oppose northern and southern Europeans. Instead he was more careful and opposed English and Dutch (northern Europeans) and Spanish (Southern Europeans). Actually, there is nothing new here because since the second half of the 16th century the English have been accusing the Spanish of cruelty in the Americas, but only as an insidious way of attempting to legitimate their own colonisation.

As for my tone, well, I admit that sometimes I am excessive, but it is only when I see someone attempting to use history for abusive agendas.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2006 at 23:18
Actually Spain was the only colonial power that did not trafficked in slaves: tehy imported them but they had forbidden to capture or sell them. They had pros and cons.

-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 28-Feb-2006 at 20:23
Originally posted by Voyager

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.



Study better history instead of insisting in your racist agenda that northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans. All Europeans that went to America considered the Indians as savages, because the latter’s culture was completely different from what was considered civilisation in Europe. On the other side, Europeans considered Asians as civilised and in some aspects superior to the Europeans. That is why the Europeans (and not just the English, since the Portuguese were already in Asia since 1498) studied carefully many cultural aspects of Asia.

 

wow your tone in this thread came out of left field. maybe you simply have some inferiority complex and take offense very easily. "Racism" was not my intent, my thread was based on the observation that Malaysians, Singaporeans, Bruneis think highly of their Brittish ex-colonialists while Filipinos hate the Spanish-era.

I also noticed that ex-brittish colonies have been in general more well-off post-colonialism compared to the mostly agriculturally based economies of former Spanish colonies.

I believe that had it been the Brittish to colonize the Aztecs and Incans, the academic world would have more to work with as Aztec and Incan written documents would not have been saught after and destroyed forever like the Spanish did. Is that racist. 



Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 28-Feb-2006 at 20:29
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

 

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.



Can't compare: the British only conquered India in the 19th century, with merely commercial purposes and with all the bagagge of 4 previous centuries of European imperialism.

If you want to evaluate a prossible early British colonization, look at the USA, where colonists and plantation slavists simply took over the natives' lands. True that they stabilished the line of the Apalachians but that was mainly because they had started fearing their own colonists.

While the Spaniards acted like fanatics, they were not so much land hungry: they wanted gold and souls, the British wanted land and gold and the natives were in their way equally.

the thing about the native americans is that the natives didnt have written text and advanced culture to destroy. I believe the Aztec and Inca would have gone the way of Siam/Thailand had it not been for the Spanish making it a point remove their culture from the face of history.



Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 28-Feb-2006 at 20:37

Originally posted by Voyager

Originally posted by Mixcoatl

Study better history instead of insisting in your racist agenda that northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans.

He never said northern Europeans are better than southern Europeans. Calm down your tone please.

He didn't need to explicitly oppose northern and southern Europeans. Instead he was more careful and opposed English and Dutch (northern Europeans) and Spanish (Southern Europeans). Actually, there is nothing new here because since the second half of the 16th century the English have been accusing the Spanish of cruelty in the Americas, but only as an insidious way of attempting to legitimate their own colonisation.

As for my tone, well, I admit that sometimes I am excessive, but it is only when I see someone attempting to use history for abusive agendas.

Uh..  the reason they were "grouped" "against" Spain was because, let me guess.... uh, oh yea! Spanish conquered the Aztec and Incans! Wow what a thought. Had the Dutch, German or Chinese colonized, forced religous change, and tried to wipe out Aztec and Incan civilization then they would be the subject of this topic. but currently... the Spanish are the ones who once ruled over said civilization. what a thought huh?

 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Feb-2006 at 23:05
Spain, or rather the Spanish adventurers... were interested in:
  1. Gold
  2. Silver
  3. Plantations
  4. Administrative positions
Bo the Aztecs and, specially, the Incas had aboundance of precious metals and that was their ruin. Also, without time to adapt, they were easy prey for the conquistadores. Their populations also were already tamed to work in the agriculture and mining, so the explotation by the ruthless conquerors was easy.

Would the English or French had ignored such a opportunity. I can't say. I can't also say if it would have been better that they remained independent. Instead of the destiny of Siam, they were more likely to follow the destiny of the African kingdoms, becoming providers of slave workforce for the colonial plantations in exchange for trinquets and obsolete rifles.

But I think that the fact that they owned silver mines sealed their fate, as they were unable to defend them. The very Portuguese, who were much less agressive than Castilians (due to their size mostly) destroyed the Monomotapa (Kitwara) empire just for the same reason. Christian Congo was bound to extinition because savage slave-chaser Jaggas were a much more attractive ally for both Portuguese and Dutch. Siam only survived due to the jealousy of France and Britain. The same can be said of China itself, which British and Nordmericans wanted to keep "independent" just because they thought they would lose in any partition.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Voyager
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2006 at 10:18

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

wow your tone in this thread came out of left field.

Wow, what a brilliant observation. Then, I suppose that had I agreed with you, that would make me coming out of the right field.

maybe you simply have some inferiority complex and take offense very easily.

ZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ

I believe that had it been the Brittish to colonize the Aztecs and Incans, the academic world would have more to work with as Aztec and Incan written documents would not have been saught after and destroyed forever like the Spanish did. Is that racist. 

WTF! You believe!? You believe!? This is a history forum, not a propaganda forum to prove through belief that the British colonisation was good and justifiable. I already said that since the 16th century the British have been denigrating the Spanish just to "prove" that they would be "better" colonisers. Do you think that the English went to grab colonies due to that 19th century myth of the "White Man's burden", bringing civilisation to savage lands? If the British were such good guys, then why were they expelled after WW2?

I also noticed that ex-brittish colonies have been in general more well-off post-colonialism compared to the mostly agriculturally based economies of former Spanish colonies.

Manipulation of data. The only British colonies that are well are those were it occurred a strong European immigraton. They are "Britains" overseas.  Let me explain you something: colonies were made exclusively for exploitation.

Uh..  the reason they were "grouped" "against" Spain was because, let me guess.... uh, oh yea! Spanish conquered the Aztec and Incans! Wow what a thought. Had the Dutch, German or Chinese colonized, forced religous change, and tried to wipe out Aztec and Incan civilization then they would be the subject of this topic. but currently... the Spanish are the ones who once ruled over said civilization. what a thought huh?

How convenient, uh? Since only the Spanish governed those lands then you can imagine anything about what the others would do. Let me tell you for your information that initially the Spanish government was more interested in having commercial deals with the Aztecs and Incas. It were instead the Conquistadors that took the initiative of conquering those empires against the will of the Spanish authorities. In the case of Cortes, the Spanish authorities even sent a failed expedition to punish him. What happened is that after the conquests, the Spanish authorities decided to be pragmatic and assumed the administration of those conqquered lands.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2006 at 21:54
Some of the poorest countries of the World are ex-British colonies:

The 10 poorest countries:

1. East Timor (ex-Indonesian)
2. Malawi (ex-British)
3. Somalia (partly ex-British, partly ex-Italian)
4. D.R. Congo (ex-Belgian)
5. Tanzania (ex-British)
6. Burundi (ex-Belgian)
7. Guinea-Bissau (ex-Portuguese)
8. Yemen (partly ex-British, partly independent)
9. Afghanistan (independent)
10. Ethiopia (independent)

Former Spanish colonies are all well in the middle of the list.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 06-Mar-2006 at 19:30
Originally posted by Voyager

Wow, what a brilliant observation. Then, I suppose that had I agreed with you, that would make me coming out of the right field.  

you sound like a 12 year old, it is not that you did not agree with me but that you reply in an offensive manner.

ZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ

I can tell in your post that i am right, i sense inferiority complex

.WTF! You believe!? You believe!? This is a history forum, not a propaganda forum to prove through belief that the British colonisation was good and justifiable. I already said that since the 16th century the British have been denigrating the Spanish just to "prove" that they would be "better" colonisers. Do you think that the English went to grab colonies due to that 19th century myth of the "White Man's burden", bringing civilisation to savage lands? If the British were such good guys, then why were they expelled after WW2? 

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

I also noticed that ex-brittish colonies have been in general more well-off post-colonialism compared to the mostly agriculturally based economies of former Spanish colonies.

Manipulation of data. The only British colonies that are well are those were it occurred a strong European immigraton. They are "Britains" overseas.  Let me explain you something: colonies were made exclusively for exploitation.

Like for example Malaysia? Singapore? Hong Kong? India? It seems YOU are the one being racist here, sounds like you are saying Europeans are superior.

[QUOTE] How convenient, uh? Since only the Spanish governed those lands then you can imagine anything about what the others would do. Let me tell you for your information that initially the Spanish government was more interested in having commercial deals with the Aztecs and Incas. It were instead the Conquistadors that took the initiative of conquering those empires against the will of the Spanish authorities. In the case of Cortes, the Spanish authorities even sent a failed expedition to punish him. What happened is that after the conquests, the Spanish authorities decided to be pragmatic and assumed the administration of those conqquered lands.

Thank you for the insight in this paragraph 



Posted By: Wrageowrapper
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 07:42
There is an argument in Australia that bassically states that if the French colonised Australia (which could easily have happened) the eventual Black Wars and poor treatment of the Indigenous people would never have happened. While the French were more open during some of their visits I have no doubt in my mind that the same events would have unfolded. Just look at French Polynesia. The French were interested in finding strategic positions against the English, a little bit of science, using the land to produce more goods for the French market, and to convert the locals. It was the last two things that led to the conflicts with the British.

-------------
Nuenonne Palawa-kani wrageowrapper.


Posted By: Jalisco Lancer
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 13:25
Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

 

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.


Can't compare: the British only conquered India in the 19th century, with merely commercial purposes and with all the bagagge of 4 previous centuries of European imperialism. If you want to evaluate a prossible early British colonization, look at the USA, where colonists and plantation slavists simply took over the natives' lands. True that they stabilished the line of the Apalachians but that was mainly because they had started fearing their own colonists. While the Spaniards acted like fanatics, they were not so much land hungry: they wanted gold and souls, the British wanted land and gold and the natives were in their way equally.


the thing about the native americans is that the natives didnt have written text and advanced culture to destroy. I believe the Aztec and Inca would have gone the way of Siam/Thailand had it not been for the Spanish making it a point remove their culture from the face of history.



What are you talking about ?
Aztecs , Mayan and the mesoamerican cultures did had a a writting system, just as the egypts or the chinese.
No culture to destroy ? You better start reading some real history books and not posting based and a biased and poorly knowlegde.

Why the mesoamericans did not performed the navigation ?
what for ? they had everything they needed on their own land. It was no need for them to sail and robe from other people.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 13:47
Originally posted by Maju


Former Spanish colonies are all well in the middle of the list.

That is true, but I wonder if it is because of Spanish rule, or because of the location of those colonies. If you compare the situation of the former Spanish colonies in Central and South America, they aren't any more or less developed than the former British, Dutch, French and Danish colonies. To my knowledge Belize isn't any more or less developed than Guatemala or Honduras, and neither do Surinam and Guyana seem any more or less developed than Venezuela. The only exception appears to be Haiti, which is definately a lot poorer than its neighbor, the Dominican Republic.


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Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 19:49
Originally posted by Jalisco Lancer

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

 

The Brittish didnt make it a point to totally annhialate Indian civilization like the spanish did to the aztecs and inca. The Brittish actually studied ancient veda script while the spanish burned every piece of native text they can get their hands on.


Can't compare: the British only conquered India in the 19th century, with merely commercial purposes and with all the bagagge of 4 previous centuries of European imperialism. If you want to evaluate a prossible early British colonization, look at the USA, where colonists and plantation slavists simply took over the natives' lands. True that they stabilished the line of the Apalachians but that was mainly because they had started fearing their own colonists. While the Spaniards acted like fanatics, they were not so much land hungry: they wanted gold and souls, the British wanted land and gold and the natives were in their way equally.


the thing about the native americans is that the natives didnt have written text and advanced culture to destroy. I believe the Aztec and Inca would have gone the way of Siam/Thailand had it not been for the Spanish making it a point remove their culture from the face of history.



What are you talking about ?
Aztecs , Mayan and the mesoamerican cultures did had a a writting system, just as the egypts or the chinese.
No culture to destroy ? You better start reading some real history books and not posting based and a biased and poorly knowlegde.

Why the mesoamericans did not performed the navigation ?
what for ? they had everything they needed on their own land. It was no need for them to sail and robe from other people.

native americans as in native united states of americans, not mesoamericans. i apologize for the confusion



Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 19:55
Originally posted by Voyager

Wow, what a brilliant observation. Then, I suppose that had I agreed with you, that would make me coming out of the right field.  

you sound like a 12 year old, it is not that you did not agree with me but that you reply in an offensive manner.

ZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ

I can tell in your post that i am right, i sense inferiority complex

 

Originally posted by Voyager

Originally posted by kermit_criminal

I also noticed that ex-brittish colonies have been in general more well-off post-colonialism compared to the mostly agriculturally based economies of former Spanish colonies.

Manipulation of data. The only British colonies that are well are those were it occurred a strong European immigraton. They are "Britains" overseas.  Let me explain you something: colonies were made exclusively for exploitation.

Like for example Malaysia? Singapore? Hong Kong? India? It seems YOU are the one being racist here, sounds like you are saying Europeans are superior.

.WTF! You believe!? You believe!? This is a history forum, not a propaganda forum to prove through belief that the British colonisation was good and justifiable. I already said that since the 16th century the British have been denigrating the Spanish just to "prove" that they would be "better" colonisers. Do you think that the English went to grab colonies due to that 19th century myth of the "White Man's burden", bringing civilisation to savage lands? If the British were such good guys, then why were they expelled after WW2? 

How convenient, uh? Since only the Spanish governed those lands then you can imagine anything about what the others would do. Let me tell you for your information that initially the Spanish government was more interested in having commercial deals with the Aztecs and Incas. It were instead the Conquistadors that took the initiative of conquering those empires against the will of the Spanish authorities. In the case of Cortes, the Spanish authorities even sent a failed expedition to punish him. What happened is that after the conquests, the Spanish authorities decided to be pragmatic and assumed the administration of those conqquered lands.

 

Thank you for the insight in this paragraph 



Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 20:08

Originally posted by Maju

Some of the poorest countries of the World are ex-British colonies:

The 10 poorest countries:

1. East Timor (ex-Indonesian)
2. Malawi (ex-British)
3. Somalia (partly ex-British, partly ex-Italian)
4. D.R. Congo (ex-Belgian)
5. Tanzania (ex-British)
6. Burundi (ex-Belgian)
7. Guinea-Bissau (ex-Portuguese)
8. Yemen (partly ex-British, partly independent)
9. Afghanistan (independent)
10. Ethiopia (independent)

Former Spanish colonies are all well in the middle of the list.

East Timor was a portugese colony. Most of those countries are from Africa, and that has less to do with any single colonial power and more to do with Africa's climate(difficult to raise consistant crop), disease, and tribal division.. ie. a lack of national unity.

Im not even Pro Brittish like some people are trying to paint me, my argument is that the Brittish studied their colonized cultures while the Spanish annhialated local culture. Much of the Philippines for example was muslim, and there were even some Hindu datu's but the Spanish tried their best to wipe out Islam in the PI in favor of Catholocism.



Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 07-Mar-2006 at 20:16
Originally posted by Maju

Spain, or rather the Spanish adventurers... were interested in:
  1. Gold
  2. Silver
  3. Plantations
  4. Administrative positions

Bo the Aztecs and, specially, the Incas had aboundance of precious metals and that was their ruin. Also, without time to adapt, they were easy prey for the conquistadores. Their populations also were already tamed to work in the agriculture and mining, so the explotation by the ruthless conquerors was easy.

Would the English or French had ignored such a opportunity. I can't say. I can't also say if it would have been better that they remained independent. Instead of the destiny of Siam, they were more likely to follow the destiny of the African kingdoms, becoming providers of slave workforce for the colonial plantations in exchange for trinquets and obsolete rifles.

But I think that the fact that they owned silver mines sealed their fate, as they were unable to defend them. The very Portuguese, who were much less agressive than Castilians (due to their size mostly) destroyed the Monomotapa (Kitwara) empire just for the same reason. Christian Congo was bound to extinition because savage slave-chaser Jaggas were a much more attractive ally for both Portuguese and Dutch. Siam only survived due to the jealousy of France and Britain. The same can be said of China itself, which British and Nordmericans wanted to keep "independent" just because they thought they would lose in any partition.

good points, however i believe the difference between mesoamerica and africa was national unity. Africa is strife with tribal warfare(civil wars between tribes). The Aztecs and Incans would have been able to do what Japan did and modernize with the help of foreigners



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 08-Mar-2006 at 07:32
Originally posted by kermit_criminal

Originally posted by Maju

Some of the poorest countries of the World are ex-British colonies:

The 10 poorest countries:

1. East Timor (ex-Indonesian)
2. Malawi (ex-British)
3. Somalia (partly ex-British, partly ex-Italian)
4. D.R. Congo (ex-Belgian)
5. Tanzania (ex-British)
6. Burundi (ex-Belgian)
7. Guinea-Bissau (ex-Portuguese)
8. Yemen (partly ex-British, partly independent)
9. Afghanistan (independent)
10. Ethiopia (independent)

Former Spanish colonies are all well in the middle of the list.

East Timor was a portugese colony. Most of those countries are from Africa, and that has less to do with any single colonial power and more to do with Africa's climate(difficult to raise consistant crop), disease, and tribal division.. ie. a lack of national unity.

Im not even Pro Brittish like some people are trying to paint me, my argument is that the Brittish studied their colonized cultures while the Spanish annhialated local culture. Much of the Philippines for example was muslim, and there were even some Hindu datu's but the Spanish tried their best to wipe out Islam in the PI in favor of Catholocism.



East Timor was a Portugese colony only up to the 1960s. Later it's been an Indonesian territory. I'm focusing in their last owner.

The British were like the rest, though maybe as English speaker you find more antropological material in Engish language, which is also very much used due to be international language in the last centuries. Spain acted clearly in an anti-illustrated (ultra-Catholic) manner but for the most part it wasn't diferent than other European countries.

Philippines wasnt mostly Muslim as you say. Actually it was mostly Pagan. The Muslim areas of Philippines (Mindanao) remained largely Muslim until our day.

Obviously Africa has been dumped into extreme poverty nowadays (except for Southern Africa) and you will find most of the poorest countries in that continent. But if we exclude African nations, we still got the following list:

1. East Timor (ex-Indonesian, formerly Portuguese)
2. Yemen (partly ex-British, partly independent)
3. Afghanistan (independent, later occupied by USSR and USA)
4. Tuvalu (ex-British)
5. Myanmar (ex-British)
6. North Korea (ex-Japanese, later occupied by USSR and China)
7. Nepal (ex-British)
8. Marshall Islands (ex-USA, formerly Japanese and German)
9. Uzbekistan (ex-USSR)
10. Solomon Islands (ex-British)
11. Bangla-Desh (ex-Pakistani, formerly British)
12. Mongolia (independent, formerly Chinese)
13. Laos (ex-French)
14. Kyrgizistan (ex-USSR)
15. F.S. of Micronesia (ex-USA, formerly Japanese)
16. Cambodia (ex-French, later occupied by Vietnam)
17. Moldova (ex-USSR, partly occupied by Russia)
18. Papua-New Guinea (ex-Australian, formerly British and German)
19. Pakistan (ex-British)
20. Kiribati (ex-British)
21. Vietnam (ex-French, later occupied by USA)
22. Nicaragua (ex-Spanish, later occupied repeatedly by USA)

Nicaragua is the poorest formerly Spanish country of the World. It is 22nd not counting Afican states and 63rd counting all.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 09-Mar-2006 at 20:41

I didnt mean the Philippines was mostly Muslim, but much of it was, in fact the name of the capital city Manila, comes from a local Muslim settlement around the Pasig river banks. There are no Muslims in the area anymore. Muslims had been at war with the Spanish throughout there tenure on the Islands becuase Catholic converts recieved all the benefits while Muslims were discriminated against. Not that is hasnt been happening all over the world forced conversion is a pattern you see throughout Spains former territories.

My point is not to say the Brittish are better imperial powers and run colonies better, it is to ask.. had the Brittish, Dutch, French, Portugese etc.. "discovered" mesoamerica, would they have made it a point to wipe out or eradicate local culture? Had the Portugese colonized "mexico", would Aztec culture be alive to this day, moreso then it is these days? or would mexico have even gone the way of Siam/Thailand, or Japan?

However. that said, how many former Spanish colonies rank in the top 50, compared to Brittish colonies?

 

  1. 1.United States
  2. 2. United Kingdom
  3. 3. Australia
  4. 4. Japan
  5. 5. France
  6. 6. Canada
  7. 7. Germany
  8. 8. Norway
  9. 9. China
  10. 10.Italy
  11. 11.Spain
  12. 12.Russia
  13. 13.Portugal
  14. 14.Luximbourg
  15. 15.Lichenstien
  16. 16.New Zealand
  17. 17.Ireland
  18. 18.Sweden
  19. 19.Finland
  20. 20.South Africa
  21. 21.Turkey
  22. 22.India
  23. 23.Netherlands
  24. 24.South Korea
  25. 25.Belguim
  26. 26.Switzerland
  27. 27.Austria
  28. 28.Denmark
  29. 29.Poland
  30. 30.Greece
  31. 31.Iceland
  32. 32.Pakistan
  33. 33.Thailand
  34. 34.Israel
  35. 35.Brazil
  36. 36.U.A.E
  37. 37.Kuwait
  38. 38.Argentina
  39. 39.Egypt
  40. 40.Taiwan (Claimed by China)
  41. 41.Romania
  42. 42.Bulgaria
  43. 43.Bolivia
  44. 44.Peru
  45. 45.Saudi Arabia
  46. 46.Hungary
  47. 47.Nigeria
  48. 48.Monaco
  49. 49.Croatia
  50. 50.Zambia

 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 06:44
Your list is inexact and you are somehow unfair including Europe. If we exclude Africa of the bottom, we must exclude Europe from the top.

All my data comes from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_%28PPP%29_per_capita - Wikipedia - List of countries by GDP (PPP) per capita.

... where arguably Equatorial Guinea ranks 9th - I believe this is a nonsense of some vandal obsessed by the recently discovered oil of this country.

Skipping dubious Equatorial Guinea, and Europe, we have:
  1. USA (partly ex-British, ex-French, ex-Spanish, ex-Russian and independent Hawaii)
  2. Canada (ex-British; formerly mostly French)
  3. Japan (independent)
  4. Australia (ex-British)
  5. Qatar (ex-British - oil emporium)
  6. Singapore (ex-British)
  7. Brunei (ex-British - oil emporium)
  8. New Zealand (ex-British)
  9. UAE (ex-Bristish - oil emporium)
  10. Israel (ex-British)
  11. South Korea (ex-Japansese, later US occupation)
  12. Bahrein (ex British, oil emporium)
  13. Bahamas (ex-Bristish)
  14. Barbados (ex-British)
  15. Kuwait (ex-British, formerly Turkish - oil emporium)
  16. Oman (ex-British - oil emporium)
  17. St. Kitts and Nevis (ex-British)
  18. Saudi Arabia (independent, formerly partly Turk - oil Emporium)
  19. Trinidad and Tobago (ex-British)
  20. Argentina (ex-Spanish)
If we ignore the micro-states, Argentina is just 11th out of Europe - not that bad, specially considering that it's been recently abused by the IMF and its miracle policies that sink countries in black holes. In general, we can say that Spanish ex-colonies are somehow in the middle of the table while British ex-colonies seem to cope the extremes (Belgian ex-colonies seem the worst performing ones in any case).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: kermit_criminal
Date Posted: 11-Mar-2006 at 20:46
Originally posted by Maju

Your list is inexact and you are somehow unfair including Europe. If we exclude Africa of the bottom, we must exclude Europe from the top.

All my data comes from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_%28PPP%29_per_capita - Wikipedia - List of countries by GDP (PPP) per capita.

... where arguably Equatorial Guinea ranks 9th - I believe this is a nonsense of some vandal obsessed by the recently discovered oil of this country.

Skipping dubious Equatorial Guinea, and Europe, we have:
  1. USA (partly ex-British, ex-French, ex-Spanish, ex-Russian and independent Hawaii)
  2. Canada (ex-British; formerly mostly French)
  3. Japan (independent)
  4. Australia (ex-British)
  5. Qatar (ex-British - oil emporium)
  6. Singapore (ex-British)
  7. Brunei (ex-British - oil emporium)
  8. New Zealand (ex-British)
  9. UAE (ex-Bristish - oil emporium)
  10. Israel (ex-British)
  11. South Korea (ex-Japansese, later US occupation)
  12. Bahrein (ex British, oil emporium)
  13. Bahamas (ex-Bristish)
  14. Barbados (ex-British)
  15. Kuwait (ex-British, formerly Turkish - oil emporium)
  16. Oman (ex-British - oil emporium)
  17. St. Kitts and Nevis (ex-British)
  18. Saudi Arabia (independent, formerly partly Turk - oil Emporium)
  19. Trinidad and Tobago (ex-British)
  20. Argentina (ex-Spanish)

If we ignore the micro-states, Argentina is just 11th out of Europe - not that bad, specially considering that it's been recently abused by the IMF and its miracle policies that sink countries in black holes. In general, we can say that Spanish ex-colonies are somehow in the middle of the table while British ex-colonies seem to cope the extremes (Belgian ex-colonies seem the worst performing ones in any case).

I dont think its fair to split the United States into Brittish, French and Spanish as the former 2 had very little to do with the building of the nation, they just had territories America wanted.

I also do not think it is fair to exclude Hong kong(and Singapore if you included it with the micro-states) who do have significant population centers unlike other "micro-states" who do not rely on oil, or do rely on tourism for exonomic boost, and have less natural resources, having to import raw materials.

 



Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2006 at 20:34

Spain gets a really bad rap for Mexico, and its undeserved. The Spanish had no interest in genocide, contrary to the modern outlook: that was, in fact, more a feature of North American colonists. The Spanish were undoubtedly interested in the cultural obliteration, but not physical obliteration: they envisioned the native populace as potential converts. Colonial powers in North America, with the possible exception of the French, sought to remove the inhabitants completely from the land and were uninterested in their fate. While the Spanish were very harsh and do deserve some of their reputation, they were not as brutal to the population in Mexico as their counterparts in the north. They were simply dealing with a much larger native population and had conquered a more developed native civilization. People have more horror over the bombardment and conquest of Tenochtitlan than they do over whole tribes that were completely eradicated in more northerly regions, and I think part of that has to do with the fact people recognize that the Aztecs were an urban civilization but feel less empathy towards tribal groups, whom they think of as barbaric and feel less loss over their extermination.

Key to the whole thing is that the native population of the Spanish and Portuguese sphere is to this day large and vibrant, and can be counted in the millions, while the natives of North America have come very close to disappearing and, outside of the far north, number only in the thousands, scattered in small groups. In the areas of the most intense colonization they simply don't exist anymore, while native blood is still common even in the largest urban centres in the south.

 

It's the Dutch and English that really deserve the reputation the Spanish have got. Did the Spanish ever do anything comparable to what the English did to the Beothuk?

 

As well, one has to remember none of these entities were monolithic. The Spanish tried to have Cortes arrested, initially. Later, elements of the clergy in Spain would be among the first to assert a concept of universal human rights and put forth a great effort to catalogue the culture other elements had attempted to destroy. Likewise in the north, the British adminstration drew a line across the Appalachians and opposed settlement in native territories but English colonists revolted and poured across the boundary to displace these peoples. There were different elements at work in every group.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 14-Mar-2006 at 20:13
The true reason for all Black Legend is that Spain had many enemies, mostly other colonial powers (England, Netherlands, France) and all them wanted to create bad press to this country. The corruption and religious obscurantism it got inmersed in didn't help, and didn't help the barbaric practices of former slave-trader Colombus and the other Spanish adventurers who hoped to become masters of their own feuds and become rich and powerful easily.

On the other hand, Spain has cultivated its own Rosy Legend by which Spain only wanted to convert souls to Christianity, didn't practice slave trade (what is true) and tried to be non-racist toward Native Americans (what is true only on paper and partly). In this Rosy Legend the extermination of the Caribean peoples by overwork (as Las Casas denounced) and the enslaving of Native Americans elsewhere, sometimes with the most brutal methods is just ignored or even denied.

As always the truth is somewhere in between. Personally I think that the truth is closer to the Black Legend but that when compared with other Western powers, particularly Britain and the USA, Spain happen to be not so "ugly". North America and Australasia are clear examples of what Anglosaxon colonialism can do. The particularly striking Germanic racism, visible in these countries but also in others like Eastern or Southern Africa wasn never so explicit in the colonies ruled by Latin European powers: neither Spain, nor France nor Portugal tried to keep other "races" separated but rather their assimilation - even if that was only an unreal pretension.

The problem with Latin (and Catholic) powers is that they were backwards in comparison to the Western Germanic (and Protestant) powers. France is surely the exception but it is also the country that had less colonial territory (before the 20th century) of the three. The problem with Mexico therefore is not that Mexicans (natives) were particularly ill-treated but that Spain left as legacy a feudal system that Mexicans (and other Latin Americans) are having a hard time to get rid off.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 16-Mar-2006 at 06:27
Originally posted by Maju

The problem with Latin (and Catholic) powers is that they were backwards in comparison to the Western Germanic (and Protestant) powers.


hmm .. I'd have to disagree there, depending on what time period you're talking about. The Italian High Renaissance is around 1500, at a time when places like England and Germany were still more or less medieval societies. The great centres of finance, technology, science, high craftsmanship, philosophy, and education were concentrated in Catholic countries, particularly Italy. By the end of the Elizabethan era, I think it's probably safe to say that places like England and Germany have caught up and even pulled ahead from the Latin centres, but at the very outset of European colonization of the Americas it wouldn't seem to be so.


Posted By: Voyager
Date Posted: 16-Mar-2006 at 13:35

Originally posted by edgewaters

By the end of the Elizabethan era, I think it's probably safe to say that places like England and Germany have caught up and even pulled ahead from the Latin centres, but at the very outset of European colonization of the Americas it wouldn't seem to be so.

Good point about Southern Europe. Maju is very Jacobin and is always seeing Southern Europe in this period as being under the tyranny of the Catholic Church.

On the other side, I don't agree with your comment about Germany, since the whole territory was destroyed in the 30 Years War. England and the Netherlands were at the level of Southern Europe in the 17th century, whereas the other Northern European countries only achieved that during the Industrial Revolution.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 16-Mar-2006 at 18:40
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by Maju

The problem with Latin (and Catholic) powers is that they were backwards in comparison to the Western Germanic (and Protestant) powers.


hmm .. I'd have to disagree there, depending on what time period you're talking about. The Italian High Renaissance is around 1500, at a time when places like England and Germany were still more or less medieval societies. The great centres of finance, technology, science, high craftsmanship, philosophy, and education were concentrated in Catholic countries, particularly Italy. By the end of the Elizabethan era, I think it's probably safe to say that places like England and Germany have caught up and even pulled ahead from the Latin centres, but at the very outset of European colonization of the Americas it wouldn't seem to be so.


I didn't mean that the Catholic Curch is the reason for backwardism but that in Western Europe, Latin-German division is also that of Catholic-Protestant.

But it can be well said that while the Papacy was outstandingly corrupt and Italy was very divided, Renaissance went ahead. When the Counter-Reformation was done and Spain controlled Italy, Renaissance  migrated to Protestant NW Europe, particularly the Netherlands, where Inquisition was non-existent and inquisitorial activities were less extreme.

So I do think that the hybrid of post-Trent Catholicism that Spain, Italy and large parts of Germany have suffered, has been pretty much nocive. France has oscilated but eventually also fell in Catholic obscurantism, being rescued somehow by the Revolution only.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 17-Mar-2006 at 21:47
Hi,
To Maju:
No Spanish slavery? What about the encomiendas?

And how dare you saying such awfull things about the holly roman
catholic church?
Seriously, I think the all protestant = progress and catholic
= backwardness idea is a bite over used. Why Spain was overtaken by
northmen has much more to do with the early modern Spanish way of life
than with any catholic predisposition.
Bye.

-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 21:23
Originally posted by Maharbbal

Hi,
To Maju:
No Spanish slavery? What about the encomiendas?


There was Spanish slavery. What Castilian subjects (and later all Spaniards) had forbidden was slave-trading. You will never read of any Spaniard dealing in human merchandise, unless he's some sort of renegade and that's for a legal reason.

Encomiendas aren't technically slavery but a sort of feudalism. An encomienda is nothing but a feud. True that feudalist serfdom and pure slavery have little differences but they aren't the same thing.

For instance famous and infamous Basco-American rebel Lope de Aguirre tells as one of the reasons for his rebellion and that of his folowers that they were expropiated ("robbed") of their indians (that they pretended to own as slaves) by the viceroy of Peru.

Humanitarian intention wasn't totally absent in the decrees written in Valladolid and sometimes even applied in America by the governors and vicerois. Nevertheless the conquerors and landowners were very brutal in their practice for the most part. After all America was far away from Valladolid and Seville and what the Queen or King may have intended in Europe was or not applied in "the Indies".

This sounds probably to the legends of the "good monarch" betrayed by his (or her) bureaucrats that have dominated the imaginary of pre-modern empires such as China or Russia but it has some reality behind, specially under Isabella.


And how dare you saying such awfull things about the holly roman
catholic church?
Seriously, I think the all protestant = progress and catholic
= backwardness idea is a bite over used. Why Spain was overtaken by
northmen has much more to do with the early modern Spanish way of life
than with any catholic predisposition.
Bye.


The association is not totally lacking meaning. This may be less important nowadays that "Catholic" countries are less religious than many Protestant ones, as the USA, where fanatism and ignorance seem to be a major sociological problem but it was a burden earlier.

Maybe the reasn is not so much in "Catholicism" as such but in the Roman and Medieval aristocratic values that it used to defend. The French colonization of North America for instance can be also seen as a failure partly due to feudalism and Catholic interference. While missions among the natives seem a humanitarian success, specially when compared with the brutal US genocide, the intolerance towards Huguenots and the attemt to reproduce the feudal system in Canada kept this colony weak, causing its eventual handover to the British.

As I say, this is not anymore valid, because religious values are not anymore central but for several centuries, Catholicism and its aristocratism was a burden.

On the other hand, Protestant ministers, starting by infamous Luther's appeal to massacre the rebel peasants "like rabid dogs", also supported aristocrats - but overall it seems to have favored a more illustrated enviroment, while post-Trent Italy and post-Henri IV France fell in obscurantism (Castile was never illustrated but Navarre was and yet it was damaged by the foreign Catholic domination).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 22:12
Originally posted by Maju

The association is not totally lacking meaning.


Definately not ... but I think it has to do with the lack of Scandinavian influence in the Latin countries, more than religion. Norse society was vigorous and injected new ideas about government into places like England (and, to a lesser degree, France). The great shift in English society is attributed often to French influence, but it really underwent severe reorganization earlier during the under-recognized Danish "conquest", especially under Canute. And the Normans were, after all, Frankified Scandinavians. Germany was less influenced by Scandinavians themselves, but shared common characteristics. It's the juncture of Norse influence and Latin influence that produced a synthesis in the north which eventually became very powerful. IMHO.

The French colonization of North America for instance can be also seen as a failure partly due to feudalism and Catholic interference. While missions among the natives seem a humanitarian success, specially when compared with the brutal US genocide, the intolerance towards Huguenots and the attemt to reproduce the feudal system in Canada kept this colony weak, causing its eventual handover to the British.


There's something to this, but bigger factors were at work too. The French viewed the colonies differently than the English. The French didn't really make much of an effort to colonize the Americas. They just wanted to set up self-sufficient trading colonies and control the fur trade. The English, on the other hand, viewed their colonies as a place for dissenting elements, such as religious utopianists (eg, the Puritans), a way to purge English society of malcontents and misfits. The population of New France was, for most of its history, considerably smaller than that of New England and yet, as late as things like the Albany Congress it was arguably more secure.

Another huge mistake the French made was immediatly coming into conflict with the powerful and expansionist Iroquois Confederacy, with whom the English allied. The French plan was alot like Cortes plan in Mexico - to ingratiate themselves with all the groups who feared and hated the Iroqouis and attempt to gain control that way. But it was a different situation, the Iroqouis turned out to be more formidable in war, diplomacy, and strategy than the French could have imagined. Long before the fall of New France, the Iroqouis managed to wrest control of much of the fur trade away from the French, which caused the colonies to become an even lesser priority in Paris. Being a continental, rather than an island power, this level of priority was already considerably lower than with the English.

In the final analysis, the French Canadians weren't conclusively defeated ... much as their defeat on the Plains of Abraham was depicted that way, they still had control of most of their territory. New France could have been kept, the French were given that option at the negotiations at the Treaty of Paris - New France, or Guadelupe Island. They chose Guadelupe.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 08:51

In a lot of the British colonies, the indigenous people became minorities in their own lands and thus have no power to this day. The British often brought foreign labourers that they use to keep the indigenous people in check. Divide and conquer and all that jazz.

In Spanish colonies, most of the indigenous people remain the majority. Also Spanish attitude, similar to the French, is to mold their colonies in to copies of their culture. Intermarriage took place widely and the colonised are brought into Spanish society, however marginalised. However with the British, no matter how anglophone you are, you will never be considered part of British society. Other whites not sharing the same culture like russians, germans etc will be treated better than you. Hence the afro latinos feel part of their society but afro americans don't.

As a Filipino, I am glad that it was the Spanish that colonised the Philippines. If it was the British, we would have been minorities in our own country the way Malays were in Malaysia. The only reason Malays control Malaysia now and have become the majority is because during their independence, the British felt some guilt at what they did and favored Malay dominance over Malaysia instead of chinese and indian. To maintain Malay majority, singapore was kicked out and Sabah, part of the Philippines that was leased to the British by the Sultan of Sulu, was annexed against Filipinos will but supported by then colonial masters the US.

 



Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 09:36
Originally posted by edgewaters

I think it has to do with the lack of Scandinavian
influence in the Latin countries


tell me you're jocking, please. I'm far from being 100%
against biology theories in history, but frankly this is just stupid (I'm sorry
but it has to be said). Be careful when you're using explanations that are
not concidered since... 1945.
So, if I follow you, why Sicily and Southern Italy are nowadays the most
backward place in all Western Europe?

By the way the rest of your post's interesting.

Bye.

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I am a free donkey!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 17:19
Originally posted by Maharbbal

Originally posted by edgewaters

I think it has to do with the lack of Scandinavian
influence in the Latin countries


tell me you're jocking, please. I'm far from being 100%
against biology theories in history, but frankly this is just stupid (I'm sorry
but it has to be said). Be careful when you're using explanations that are
not concidered since... 1945.
So, if I follow you, why Sicily and Southern Italy are nowadays the most
backward place in all Western Europe?

By the way the rest of your post's interesting.

Bye.


Huh?

It's not a racial thing or anything like that. It's just a simple matter of a particularly sophisticated "barbaric" peoples - or their cultural legacy, at any rate - meeting up with the Roman legacy and a cultural fusion producing a new culture, with elements from both. There's nothing Hitlerian about noting that the Scandinavians did have some influences on the cultures of northern Europe, particularly England.

Latin countries didn't experience this cultural fusion during the Middle Ages. If you read some of my earlier posts in this threads, you'll see that I acknowledge the Latin countries to actually be more advanced than the northern states as late as the early 1500s:

The Italian High Renaissance is around 1500, at a time when places like England and Germany were still more or less medieval societies. The great centres of finance, technology, science, high craftsmanship, philosophy, and education were concentrated in Catholic countries, particularly Italy. (scroll up to see that)

But when the neo-classical ideas born in Latin Europe - the Roman legacy I speak of, reborn in things like the Italian Renaissance - made their way north and ran into societies influenced by Scandinavian cultural concepts, a synthesis which was quite powerful was produced. The Scandinavian element is not one that was sufficient alone - neo-classicism never happened in Russia and so Russia remained backwards, despite Scandinavian origins and influences. Nor is it a "biological" thing, it's a cultural thing.


Posted By: Jalisco Lancer
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 17:53


Hi Maju:
Spain established the Encomiendas in the Americas as an extension of the european feudal system. Encomenderos were awarded with a possesion of lands and natives to labor the land for them. In exchange, the Encomendero was supposed to provide supplies, housing and have them christianized.

However, there were indeed african slaves brought all the way from Africa into Cuba and from there to the rest of thre Americas.

The slavery practiced by Spain in the Americas was a fact. Father Hidalgo decreed the abolition of the slavery back in 1810 and was forbiden on the first Mexican Constitution.

   Even, at the end of the XIX century, Spain was buying kidnaped mayans from pirates as slaves for their sugar plantations at Cuba.



Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 19:11
Spanish did have native slaves too. They bought Natchez slaves from the French in the Carribean, and enslaved the original Taino inhabitants.

Also, New Spain had thriving slave markets up until the early 1800s which traded whiskey, horses and guns to Ute, Apache, Comanche, and Navajo for native slaves they would capture on raids against other native groups (including each other). Paiute were a popular target.

Walkara is one of the historical figures from this episode, an Ute raider and trader who bought or raided for just about everything, whiskey, slaves, horses, guns. He sold slaves to the Spanish in return for horses, and sold horses to the Mormons in return for whiskey, and sold all manner of European goods to other native groups.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 20:07
Technically enslavement of Native Americans (Indians, as they used to call them) was allowed only on cannibals. There were no cannibals but the colonists, eager to get some workforce, blamed the Arawaks of cannibalism, from where the name Carib seems to come from.

So Caribs are just Arawaks (and Tainos maybe) who were not subjugated to Spanish rule and therefore were accused of cannibalism to go around the law that forbade enslaving of Native Americans.

I didn't kow about the Natchez slaves but guess that, as they had been captured by another people, that was perfectly legal - a French moral problem, in other terms.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 20:31
Hi,
To: Maju, you're playing with words and here are two examples:
1) the Mista system in Potosi mines, a remake of Mayan feudal slavery.
2) in 1580 when Portugal was taken by Philip II there were lots of slaves
in Brazil and very few (none as far as I'm concerned but I may be slightly
wrong) have sent free. (see the film The Mission)
Bye.
PS: but yes fighting slavery if only in words is already something. So a big
cheer up for Santiago, the Catholic Kings, the Dominican Friars, the
Jesuits and Las Casas!


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I am a free donkey!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 20:39
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by Maju

The association is not totally lacking meaning.


Definately not ... but I think it has to do with the lack of Scandinavian influence in the Latin countries, more than religion. Norse society was vigorous and injected new ideas about government into places like England (and, to a lesser degree, France).


This is racist ranting. There's no reason to think that Scandinavians made much for anywhere in Europe except their own countries. Normands, as have been discussed in other places were basically Frenchmen and spoke French - but even Norman influence is relatively irrelevant, though they seem to have ben preciated warriors.

If that "Norse vigour" you talk of is their barbaric warrying lifestyle - ok then. But I see no other influence that can be attributed to Norsemen at all.


The great shift in English society is attributed often to French influence, but it really underwent severe reorganization earlier during the under-recognized Danish "conquest", especially under Canute. And the Normans were, after all, Frankified Scandinavians. Germany was less influenced by Scandinavians themselves, but shared common characteristics. It's the juncture of Norse influence and Latin influence that produced a synthesis in the north which eventually became very powerful. IMHO.


Don't know if you realize that Anglo-Saxons and Danes are totally the same people, genetically and culturally speaking. Just that Anglo-Saxons arrived in an earlier wave.

But probably what makes England unique (more liberal) is their marginality and privitivism. What made them "backward" in the Middle Ages, their relative low developement of feudalism, the relatively good situation of women and peasants... all that allowed them to jump forward faster in Modernity, without the burdens that continental societies had to get rid of - sometimes in a violent and painful manner.

Only one country in Western Europe was less feudal than Britain (more Modern and Barbaric at the same time) that I know of: Navarre. But it was annihilated by its feudalist neighbours in a long struggle that was as much ideological as ethnical. Maybe this "modern barbarism" was also relevant in Scandinavia but I'm not so sure: when Britain had a long stabilished constitutional monarchy, the Danes and Swedes were still in the Absolutist phase, just as most other Europeans. Only Dutch and Swiss can compare.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 20:50
Originally posted by Maharbbal

Hi,
To: Maju, you're playing with words and here are two examples:
1) the Mista system in Potosi mines, a remake of Mayan feudal slavery.
2) in 1580 when Portugal was taken by Philip II there were lots of slaves
in Brazil and very few (none as far as I'm concerned but I may be slightly
wrong) have sent free. (see the film The Mission)
Bye.
PS: but yes fighting slavery if only in words is already something. So a big
cheer up for Santiago, the Catholic Kings, the Dominican Friars, the
Jesuits and Las Casas!


The mita, an Inca (not Mayan) workforce organization system (serfdom?) wasn't slavery as such... though it was surely close, we must remember that it was the native system and that feudal serfdom was then still frequent in Europe itself.

Portugal was united dynastically: there was never a legal union. In fact Spain didn't exist politically until the 17th century. While Philip II did style himself King of Spain (meaning the Iberian peninsula, as he was king of Castile, Aragon and Portugal), Aragonese realms and Portugal, among other states had their own laws. Aragonese subjects were mostly excluded from settling in or trading with Castilian American colonies, etc. It was a complex legal framework but talking of "Spain" is pretty much confusing: the power that owned America (east of the Tordesillas line) was Castile, not any "Spain".

Portugal did allow slave-trading - that's pretty clear. But Portugal wasn't Castile at any time, even in the period of personal union under the Philips.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 21:23
Hi,
Poo poo poo Maju's playing with words again.
Indeed, Mita was native system (damn I was quiete sure it was Maya )
and not legally slavery. But, slavery it was, in facts.
And hum let see, the "Spanish" king who was the one and only tie
between Iberian realms allowed slavery, but "Spain" didn't. Maju you're
sounding like an old Salamanca scholar full of tricks. Giving me
headaches with all these subtils definitions carralhio!

I don't know a damn about Navarre ( again) but England let say before
1688 is all but liberal or backward. From Henry V to the early Stuart they
had arguably one of the strongest state ever and some lords in the north
were über powerfull.

Bye.

-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 21:33
Hi again,
Maju any good book about Navarre/Basque country/Béarn (like Euskadi
history for dumbbies)?

to edgewaters
ok I've just read your post at the end of the previous page. Sounds
better, be clearer the next time I almost died.
So in your opinion was are these Scandinavian characteristics that made
the UK what they are? (no tricks in the question I really wonder what your
opinion is)

Bye.

-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 21:46

Originally posted by Maju

There's no reason to think that Scandinavians made much for anywhere in Europe except their own countries.

Rubbish. Russia isn't an impact? The Danification of England under Canute isn't an impact? The birth of British seapower as a reaction to Scandinavian raids isn't an impact?

If that "Norse vigour" you talk of is their barbaric warrying lifestyle - ok then.

Not even that, though I suppose that might have had something of an impact. More their social organization in tribal structures which had the kind of primitivist democracy seen in many tribal groups around the world. They did not have an abundance of outmoded, established institutions.

Don't know if you realize that Anglo-Saxons and Danes are totally the same people, genetically and culturally speaking. Just that Anglo-Saxons arrived in an earlier wave.

If the English really were just Anglo-Saxons, this idea would have some merit. Culturally, Denmark and England were very different before the Danes began to colonize England. Danes were seafaring, English were not, to name an obvious example. Danes were mostly pagan, English were mostly Christianized. Etc etc etc, too many massive differences to even mention. Similarities yes, but lets not overstate things by saying they were the "same" - you'd have to cast a net big enough to haul in half of Europe to say that. 

One must remember that the Anglo-Saxons did not wipe away the previous inhabitants, but assimilated them and in the process adopted portions of their culture - else you would not have pre-Roman British folk myths being recorded for the first time in the 1700 and 1800s. It's not clear Britain has ever been anything but distinct, due to its isolation.

But probably what makes England unique (more liberal) is their marginality and privitivism. What made them "backward" in the Middle Ages, their relative low developement of feudalism, the relatively good situation of women and peasants... all that allowed them to jump forward faster in Modernity, without the burdens that continental societies had to get rid of - sometimes in a violent and painful manner.

Right ... the same is even more true of the Scandinavian societies, this is exactly what I mean by "vigour". The Scandinavians had never even experienced urban civilization at any point in their history (unlike the English). Also their societies were relatively well-disposed to traders, with the elites eagerly engaging in it - the same is definately not true of medieval Europe. The more primitive influences coming from the north also injected a sense of individualism, again, something not really a feature of the majority of medieval Christian Europe. All this predisposed the cultures they influenced to become "first adopters" of new developments, developments which first surfaced in the more civilized centres like Italy but whose implementation and full realization was also difficult due to the conservative weight of such lengthy civilization and all its assorted institutions.

 

Nor was it only the Norse/Germanic influence ... all the former "fringe" areas around what were once Roman territories became powerhouses during the Middle Ages, including the Middle East and North Africa (and even Ireland, though only in a cultural sense). These cultures too impacted and revitalized parts of Europe, but, Latin Europe was better positioned to resist that impact (and consequently did not reap the same benefits). But even so, the "victims" of the middle ages, like Spain, became the top dogs of the early Renaissance, precisely because of those influences.

I'm at a loss to understand why this thinking should be branded racist ... it has nothing to do with race, it is more about established societies with strong institutions being less adaptable, less flexible, and less likely to become first adopters. When those institutions are destroyed - or never existed - and you add the benefits of the advances made in more civilized lands, you have a potent recipe for a vigorous first adopter. Same principle lies behind the current success of the US, even.



Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 22:36
Originally posted by edgewaters

Right ... the same is even more true of the
Scandinavian societies, this is exactly what I mean by "vigour". The
Scandinavians had never even experienced urban civilization at any point
in their history (unlike the English). Also their societies were relatively
well-disposed to traders, with the elites eagerly engaging in it - the same
is definately not true of medieval Europe. The more primitive influences
coming from the north also injected a sense of individualism, again,
something not really a feature of the majority of medieval Christian
Europe. All this predisposed the cultures they influenced to become "first
adopters" of new developments, developments which first surfaced in the
more civilized centres like Italy but whose implementation and full
realization was also difficult due to the conservative weight of such
lengthy civilization and all its assorted institutions.



Mate be specific! Tell me where you get these ideas from (titles). It's just
doesn't make much sense to me right now.
Italians were 100% more genuinely individualist and commerce minded
then any Norse and so were North African (back to the topic of the
subforum).
Besides, the English Civil War, the Glorious revolution and the 15th
Swedish wars prove these two countries were not exactly tabulas rasas
waiting for some innovation to inseminate them.
Bye.
PS: sorry for thinking one second you were racist but once more you were
all but cleat.

-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 21-Mar-2006 at 23:57

 

[/QUOTE] Italians were 100% more genuinely individualist and commerce minded then any Norse and so were North African (back to the topic of the subforum). [/quote]

I can't say about the North Africans, but as far as the Italians are concerned: yes, they had a very developed commerical infrastructure, but, the top elites of the society were not traders. They were religious authorities and nobility who disdained that profession. As regards individualism, the aristocracies of feudal societies like Italy were much more entrenched and fixed and had far more control over the thoughts and opinions of the lesser ranks of society than the Scandinavian groups. Scandinavians had some chiefs and petty kings, and a warrior/trader class, but it was not a very top-heavy or rigidly entrenched set of institutions, it was quite primitive and unsophisticated as institutions of authority go, closer to a basic pecking order than an abstract galaxy of authority based in theoretical notions and dogma. Not to mention that a good deal of decision making in northern areas was still by tribal consensus, eg the Allthings of the Saxons and Norse - there was nothing much comparable in medieval Italy that I'm aware of. 

Besides, the English Civil War, the Glorious revolution and the 15th Swedish wars prove these two countries were not exactly tabulas rasas waiting for some innovation to inseminate them.

I think your chronology is a little off, or I don't understand your point. The last of the major foreign invasions into England ended more than half a millenia before the Civil War or the Glorious Revolution.

Nor am I entirely clear why a nation has to be a complete tabula rasa before it can have any foreign influence. Modern societies which have existed for centuries are being influenced by foreign ideas all the time; why should this be any different a millenia ago?



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 00:55
Originally posted by Maharbbal

Hi again,
Maju any good book about Navarre/Basque country/Béarn (like Euskadi
history for dumbbies)?



http://www.rambles.net/kurlansky_basq99.html - The Basque History of the World, by Mark Kurlanski.

A good site to read on Basques in English is: http://www.buber.net/Basque/ - http://www.buber.net/Basque/


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 01:14
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by Maju

There's no reason to think that Scandinavians made much for anywhere in Europe except their own countries.

Rubbish. Russia isn't an impact? The Danification of England under Canute isn't an impact? The birth of British seapower as a reaction to Scandinavian raids isn't an impact?

It can be argued but it's nothing as for sure - Russians will say that Kievan Russia was built mostly by Slavs (that's arguable too). Building ships as a rection is not any favor, just a reaction. It's like saying that the greatness of Rome is due to Carthage - it may be said... but it sounds odd, to say the least.

Don't get me wrong: I like Norwegians and their sagas and I do think that the awakening of Northern Europe in the Middle Ages had a clear influence in Europe. But I don't think this influence is basically a constructive one: but rather a destructive one. Vikings were before anything raiders and pirates: nothing else.

If the English really were just Anglo-Saxons, this idea would have some merit. Culturally, Denmark and England were very different before the Danes began to colonize England. Danes were seafaring, English were not, to name an obvious example. Danes were mostly pagan, English were mostly Christianized. Etc etc etc, too many massive differences to even mention. Similarities yes, but lets not overstate things by saying they were the "same" - you'd have to cast a net big enough to haul in half of Europe to say that.

I didn't mean that the English were Anglo-Saxons - in a genetic sense. They are not, clearly. I just meant to say that before the Danes started oing their incursions, their great-grandfathers, the Anglo-Saxons had done about 2/3 of the same.

Anglo-Saxons come from Lower Germany and Denmark. Yet it's not clear that their influence was possitive, it just was - one of those accidents of history.

On the other hand I'm not so sure that British peoples were always so shy sailors. It's known that when the Norses arrived to Iceland, they found Irish monks there. It's kown that Britain had always belonges to an international trade route of tin. They can't just have been mere ignorants of the art of sailing, even if it wasn't their favorite sport at that time.


One must remember that the Anglo-Saxons did not wipe away the previous inhabitants, but assimilated them and in the process adopted portions of their culture - else you would not have pre-Roman British folk myths being recorded for the first time in the 1700 and 1800s. It's not clear Britain has ever been anything but distinct, due to its isolation.

Absolutely. Even in the most "Nordicied" corners of Britain, the proportion of aborigin blood seems at least of 50% (Orkney and Shetland) or 60% (York and Norfolk).

[quote] [quote]But probably what makes England unique (more liberal) is their marginality and privitivism. What made them "backward" in the Middle Ages, their relative low developement of feudalism, the relatively good situation of women and peasants... all that allowed them to jump forward faster in Modernity, without the burdens that continental societies had to get rid of - sometimes in a violent and painful manner.

Right ... the same is even more true of the Scandinavian societies, this is exactly what I mean by "vigour". The Scandinavians had never even experienced urban civilization at any point in their history (unlike the English). Also their societies were relatively well-disposed to traders, with the elites eagerly engaging in it - the same is definately not true of medieval Europe. The more primitive influences coming from the north also injected a sense of individualism, again, something not really a feature of the majority of medieval Christian Europe. All this predisposed the cultures they influenced to become "first adopters" of new developments, developments which first surfaced in the more civilized centres like Italy but whose implementation and full realization was also difficult due to the conservative weight of such lengthy civilization and all its assorted institutions.

 

Nor was it only the Norse/Germanic influence ... all the former "fringe" areas around what were once Roman territories became powerhouses during the Middle Ages, including the Middle East and North Africa (and even Ireland, though only in a cultural sense). These cultures too impacted and revitalized parts of Europe, but, Latin Europe was better positioned to resist that impact (and consequently did not reap the same benefits). But even so, the "victims" of the middle ages, like Spain, became the top dogs of the early Renaissance, precisely because of those influences.

I'm at a loss to understand why this thinking should be branded racist ... it has nothing to do with race, it is more about established societies with strong institutions being less adaptable, less flexible, and less likely to become first adopters. When those institutions are destroyed - or never existed - and you add the benefits of the advances made in more civilized lands, you have a potent recipe for a vigorous first adopter. Same principle lies behind the current success of the US, even.



I may have misunderstood you. Anyhow, my point is mostly socioeconomical: it's not just about "barbarism" and "civilization" but about the right set of values. Romans hated to work and despised trade... that sort of aristocratic values embedded Medieval societies and only few relatively un-romanized areas were "free" enough of such prejudices to eventually jump forward to a new set of values and a new economy, creating what we know now as the West. I am not so sure about the role of Scandinavia in all that. Scandinavia was always too small and to peripherical to count much... and I have yet to see when the Scandinavian nations were the first ones in something (piracy and other naval arts apart).


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 01:57

Originally posted by Maju

  Building ships as a rection is not any favor, just a reaction. It's like saying that the greatness of Rome is due to Carthage - it may be said... but it sounds odd, to say the least.

The greatness of Roman naval forces certainly is ... that doesn't sound odd. If it happened to be that Rome were principally a naval power, I imagine the Carthaginians would be accorded much of a role in the Roman rise.

 Vikings were before anything raiders and pirates: nothing else.

That's a silly old stereotype. The Vikings did far more settling and trading than anything else. Christians demonized them during the medieval period, as they were brutal at times, but a nation of such cartoonish characters never would have travelled as far as they did: there's no point for Vikings to sail all the way to the Middle East or Sicily just to raid some village. They wanted to trade, and establish far-flung colonies to support a long-range trade network.

People get all taboo talking about Scandinavian contributions, worrying about racism and Hitlerian boogeymen, and then turn around and commit the very thing! It's not any more fair to describe Viking cultures as nothing but raiding and war than it is to describe Aztec culture as nothing but big pyramids and human sacrifice, or plains Indians as nothing but groups that liked to go around massacring white villages. I can't understand how people DO that.


Anyhow, my point is mostly socioeconomical: it's not just about "barbarism" and "civilization" but about the right set of values.

Right, but that "right set" was produced by synthesis and exchange of values between cultures, as much as evolution. A particularly strong synthesis occurred in the exchange between Europe's vigorous outer fringes (Scandinavia, North Africa, Ireland, Middle East, etc) and its civilized centers. The primary benefactors were Britain, France, Spain, Germany, and the Netherlands - all countries with one foot in the Roman legacy and another in the fringe.

 I am not so sure about the role of Scandinavia in all that. Scandinavia was always too small and to peripherical to count much... and I have yet to see when the Scandinavian nations were the first ones in something (piracy and other naval arts apart).

Well, it probably had a role in the English development of government ... things like jury trials are rooted in Danish traditions, even the idea of democratic decision making probably had more to do with roots in the Allthings of the Danes (or maybe Saxons, but they probably adopted it) than with any Greco-Roman ideals.

Scandinavia did have a few firsts (eg transoceanic settlement) but it wasn't Scandinavian culture alone that produced the stronger nations of the colonial era - it was a mix between the fringe cultures and the ideas coming out of the great centers of medieval Europe. Like a chemical mixture - helium alone is one thing, oxygen another, and H20 yet another thing altogether.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 10:31
Vikings never travelled to Sicily: those were Normans, who were an offshot but they were not Vikings anymore: they spoke French and were highly mixed with Frenchs.

True that Varangians did stabilish some trade route but they initially traded with the product of their pillage mostly. I may be steretyping Norsemen but I think you're exaggerating their importance too. In the West their role was mostly conquest and plunder and that's what the term "Viking" is about: piracy. They surely did some trade too but the traders of the High Middle Ages, once the Viking danger had vanished, weren't Danes or Norwegians: they were Flemish and Frisians, Italians and Germans, French and Jews. I don't deny they existed but I have yet to read about the typical Danish merchant as you read about the typical Flemish or Frisian one or about the typical Danish trade fair as you read about those of Lyons or Champagne, or about the Danish fleets loaded with much demanded products, as you read about those of Genoa or Lübeck.

Yes, the Scandinavians and specially their Russian and Norman offshots were a factor in Medieval Europe but nothing that the continent couldn't have made it without. The difference would have been only minor, specially considering that most of their peripheric state creations in Russia and the Near East were destroyed. Maybe Russia is the most affected region of all Europe as the Varangians seem to have provided the core aristocracy that articulated the Russian principlaities... but that's about all.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 11:00
Originally posted by Maju

I don't deny they existed but I have yet to read about the typical Danish merchant as you read about the typical Flemish or Frisian one or about the typical Danish trade fair as you read about those of Lyons or Champagne, or about the Danish fleets loaded with much demanded products, as you read about those of Genoa or Lübeck.


Considering there aren't alot of primary sources about anybody at all from Dark Ages, this isn't really surprising, is it?

Don't forget that not everyone in history gets credit in the popular imagination. There are books you can read about Viking traders, just like there are books you can read about Basque whalers in Newfoundland. There just aren't many because people who want to read about the Vikings want to hear exciting stories of guys with axes going crazy, and they don't want to read about some Norse guy rowing his little boat around in the freezing cold with a cargo of tin cups. If they wanted to read about traders, they'd want to read about some opulent Genoese merchant with a fleet of ships trading luxury goods to distant ports.

Most of the Viking ships found are not drakkar types, the warships, but trading ships like the knarr - and by far the most common is the little byrding, which had a relatively deep draught (can't go up rivers) carrying alot of cargo but not alot of deck space, just a tiny crew.

Not to mention somebody was running a long-distance maritime trading network in northern Europe in the Dark Ages - I'm pretty sure it wasn't Genoans or the Hanseatic League yet.

And I'll grant that the Normans weren't Vikings, but they were definately French with a twist. They were a perfect example of a synthesis with the "right set" I mentioned earlier - and without them, there wouldn't have been a Norman England. You can't see any impact there? Other Normans were busy subduing the Lombards and expelling Greeks and Arabs in southern Italy - still no impact? The kingdom of Naples and Sicily lasted until the mid-19th century! They built the first towns in Ireland - could the Irish have had their cultural golden age without any sizable settlements or coastal sites?


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 22-Mar-2006 at 18:40
Originally posted by edgewaters

   There are books you can read about Viking
traders

Which ones?

Originally posted by edgewaters

Not to mention somebody was running a long-
distance maritime trading network in northern Europe in the Dark Ages [/
QUOTE]

Precisely nobody was and that is one of the reason of the weakening of
Charlemagne's heirs' empire: no more taxes from the trade points.

[QUOTE=edgewaters] The kingdom of Naples and Sicily lasted until the
mid-19th century!


It has nothing to do with it after mid 14th century.

Not amazingly convincing I must admit… too broad and obscure to me.
But I'd like you to present precisely with a clear chronology your point, if
you don't mind so my doubts may vanish.
Bye.


-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 00:18
Originally posted by Maharbbal

Hi,
Poo poo poo Maju's playing with words again.
Indeed, Mita was native system (damn I was quiete sure it was Maya )
and not legally slavery. But, slavery it was, in facts.
And hum let see, the "Spanish" king who was the one and only tie
between Iberian realms allowed slavery, but "Spain" didn't. Maju you're
sounding like an old Salamanca scholar full of tricks. Giving me
headaches with all these subtils definitions carralhio!

I don't know a damn about Navarre ( again) but England let say before
1688 is all but liberal or backward. From Henry V to the early Stuart they
had arguably one of the strongest state ever and some lords in the north
were über powerfull.

Bye.


Look, Maharbal, I couldn't care less if Castile allowed slave-trading or it didn't. But the fact is that technically it didn't and that's the main reason you don't hear of Castilian (Spanish) slave-traders. You may find the mita or the encomiendas all the regrettable you wish but it wasn't slave trading in the normal sense of the word.

I don't understand what you mean by England having a "powerful state". Did they have nukes or something? I really don't understand what you mean.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 04:04
Originally posted by Maharbbal


Which ones?


Here's one.

http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/tg/detail/-/0792251326?v=g lance

There are many others.

If you want university press you could try this:

http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/tg/detail/-/0192801341?v=g lance

The whole notion of the Vikings as nothing more than raiders is as fictional and dated (but still just as present in pop fantasy) as horned helmets.

Precisely nobody was and that is one of the reason of the weakening of
Charlemagne's heirs' empire: no more taxes from the trade points.


The Franks lost revenue from their ports because they initiated trade sanctions against the Danes, in the early 9th century, to weaken them. Thus the Danes begin to attack the Franks in the mid-9th century, until a treaty was signed with Charles the Bald.


Posted By: Maharbbal
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 05:48
Hi,

maju:

I agree with your point about castilan slave-trade.

About English power in Europe, well I'm sure somewhere on the web there
are sites saying Cromwell used nukes.
No not jocking, it is quite clear English monarchy was extremely powerful
(relatively to the times). They were able to destroy whatever, wherever on
the planet. Only a powerful (thus liberal) government could do such a
thing. Am I unclear or am I unclear?

Obrigado edgewater I'll check out.
Bye.

-------------
I am a free donkey!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 07:37
You are very unclear. 

-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Jalisco Lancer
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 11:59


Guys, this forum is dedicated to the Pre Columbine Americas and Pre Colonial Africa. Stick to the topic or I will move it to the proper forum.
Regards


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2006 at 12:40
The topic is wrongly placed: it should be in Imperial Age. 

-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!



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