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Scorpian
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Topic: Aryans came from Northern Europe Posted: 30-Apr-2006 at 08:06 |
bummer. lol
i was hoping for someone to explain Ragnarok to us that gave a little credence to the myth. Someone who could translate beyond the legends and give us a better understanding of an actual event.
so much for that
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Scorpian
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Scorpian
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Posted: 30-Apr-2006 at 09:04 |
[QUOTE=Northman][QUOTE] If you leave an area for unpleasently climate conditions - and one of your decendants 100.000 years later, get in the mood for walking, how big a chance is there for him to know where you came from? I have had trouble enough to trace my family 600 years back!
i wasn't advocating peoples moved back to the exact same locations.
Edited by Scorpian
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Zagros
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Posted: 30-Apr-2006 at 09:52 |
Aryans were an eastern branch of the IE tree. the Aryan languages are of the satem variety and have obvious linguistic differences with the centum variety of the west. I think this rules out the possibilty of Aryan languages [and peoples] coming from Northern or Western Europe. The Eastern European steppes, based on what I have read, is the most likely point of origin for the proto-IE people who later broke up to form the proto-Aryans (who most definately did exist), proto-Germanics and others. The Aryan group moved into and later divided in Central Asia forming the Mede, Parthian and various Scythian and Persian tribes who spread into the regions which now speak Aryan or Indo-Iranian languages - most other groups divided elsewhere, the Germanics, for example, split somewhere in north central Europe and Slavs in Russia and Eastern Europe.
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Leonidas
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Posted: 30-Apr-2006 at 10:23 |
Originally posted by genseric
It's always difficult to discuss these these subjects without someone's ego or feathers being ruffled. The history is in the bones and the bones tell the story. The most advanced man was found in Europe 10s of thousands of years ago. No other skeletons that advanced have been found in the entire world from the same time period. This hints at where all subsequent invasions came from. |
This isnt proof alone, if all other evidance points in another direction.
Originally posted by genseric
I also realize that Aryans who were blonder and lighter skinned in N. Europe would obviously obtain darker hair and skin as their original DNA was mixed with more local peoples on a gradual basis as they moved south. |
thats if you can prove that it was fairer people that lived north first. I think its was already populated before the whites got there. The celtic legends didnt have Ireland bare when they arrived, and i think the same applies to most of northern Europe
Originally posted by genseric
Of course all Northern Europeans did not have blonde hair although it was a sought after trait. The Celt would smear lime in their hair to make it appear blonder and for mousse effect. |
it is a sought after traight in many other places, for example fair woman were highly prized for middle eastern harems. Its not unique enough of a point.
Originally posted by genseric
Another point is anyone who believes a local population would readily accept a foreign language, ie. Aryan or Indo-European without a fight is living in a modern dreamworld. Obvious modern examples being Latin, Spanish, English, etc. which were all spread through conquests. |
linguistics talks of language shift. People change languages over time. Examples include greek to italian in southern italy, dayak to malay in borneo, assyrian to arabic in north Iraq, do the syrains still speak syraic? No. Most power changes comes with a fight, sometimes its simply economics and trade, greek spread through this less voilent way, the conquering celt theory is also being questioned.
Originally posted by genseric
The Europeans at the exact same time were developing the chariot. Does not caste translate as color, meaning color of skin? Perhaps the Bramins of India correlate to the Druids of the Celtoi? |
Ooh this can be a new thread. Druids as far as i know were of british origin, that spread to the mainland. The builders of stonehedge for instance belonged to a pre celtic era. The druids i would argue where a celtic incorperation of pre celtic/british elements and are not strictly IE. I would argue allot of the pagan religions, are bit of IE 12 gods and local superstitions which are pre IE. Nothing, genseric is pure or linear.
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red clay
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Posted: 30-Apr-2006 at 14:59 |
genseric wrote:
It's always difficult to discuss these these subjects without someone's ego or feathers being ruffled. The history is in the bones and the bones tell the story. The most advanced man was found in Europe 10s of thousands of years ago. No other skeletons that advanced have been found in the entire world from the same time period. This hints at where all subsequent invasions came from. | | |
Cro Magnon remains dated to 90,000-95,000bp were found at three sites in Israel. Research on these remains indicate they were as advanced as later CMs, not just anatomical but other areas as well, tool making, burial customs, diet etc. Puts the movement south to north theory in the catbirds seat.
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Posted: 01-May-2006 at 20:31 |
Originally posted by docyabut
The way I understand it is we are all homo-sapians that migated out of Africa, the cro- magon man was white after living in the caves. There was a Asian invasion that killed all the cro-magon men off , however the women survived and the traits went on in the women`s DNA. |
I didn't know there were so many caves on the steppes of Eurasia so that entire races of people could dwell there. The hair would be the natural camouflage, not the skin. Still cannot find any cro-magnon or other modern skeletons as old as the european ones. Nothing found in Africa as far as I can see. Guys post a link if you have one. http://www.boneclones.com/catalog_fossil_hominids.htm I still think that the Aryans originated in Europe. If not the Aryans, then at least their ancestors. I'm not impressed because DNA is "contributed" from one continent to another. I want to know the real history, what tribe went where. I don't care that a raiding party carried off a few female slaves and their DNA was carried on at some low level. I'm also sceptical because homo erectus was in China for a million years or more and had distinctly oriental features as do modern Chinese yet we are told a new invasion came from Africa and completely displaced them. It is possible that Aficans contributed to Chinese lineage but not displacement. I believe the Aryans or their ancestors came from Europe already evolved and intact and crashed headlong into the Asiatic people. The result of this collison may have produced other races such as perhaps the Mongols, Koreans, Manchurians and even the Japanese. Use your powers of observation instead of solely relying on modern theories; Asian people do have some slight African features. How come the Africans did not have the same effect on Europeans? Because the African invasion never happened, that is why. If you can show me modern human skulls from Africa over 30k years ago, I will consider the Atlantis theory or the out of Africa theory. I also think it is possible Africans had a lot of contact with the Phillipines and other islands in the Far East. Thanks.
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Posted: 01-May-2006 at 22:02 |
Frist of all, its not the atlantis story homo sapians came from one hommid, the algaster.As homo sapians migated out of africa, they changed from the adaption to the enviromemt. Mellon in the skin turned white in Europe and Russia from less voilet rays. The long trip onto Asia in the cold the eyes were swollen and the skin change from the diet , less meat and more dairy.however 70,000 years after theToba catastrophe theory, positing that the human population was reduced to a few thousand individuals when the Toba supervolcano in Indonesia erupted and triggered a massive environmental change. and the great tusumis that hit the west coast of africa 80,000 years ago populations were trown together.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Population_bottleneck
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 03:49 |
Just to add to what Zagros stated, the earliest traditions place the "Aryans" no further north than the region south of the Aral Sea and the Oxus River. This region was called Airyanem Vaejah the "abode of the Aryans". The term was historically only used by those speaking Indo-Iranian languages, hence it is from them, whose traditions we must look into. Airyanem Vaejah coincided with a culture of the region, called the Tazagabyab Culture which originated in central Asian cultural complex known as the Andronovo. The Andronovo Horizon itself originated in the Pontic-Caspian complex known as the Yamnaya Horizon. There is nothing to suggest that the Aryans originated in northern Europe.
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yazzmode621
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 11:43 |
All throughout history, only Iranians(from what I know at least) are the only people that referred to themselves as Aryans. Iran means Land of the Aryans. I find it hard to believe that the Aryans came from N. Europe, or anywhere else other than Iran. I dont think the people that already inhabited Iran before the Aryans would want their country to be called "Iran" so thats why I seriously doubt that Aryans came from anywhere else other than Iran. Besides, not all Europeans are Aryan. IMO, only the people around the Mediterranean(Spanish,French,Italians,Greeks) in Europe are Aryan. From these areas, the Aryans migrated onto Northern Europe spreading their language.
Also the whole Aryans being blonde hair, blue eyed is just propoganda that was used by the Nazis. Only racist Europeans make this claim. Italians, Greeks, Persians were not originally blond hair, blue eyed. Racially Italians, Greeks and Iranians are closest to each other.
Edited by yazzmode621
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Zagros
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 12:15 |
Hindus used it too, but in a different context.
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 12:22 |
Originally posted by Zagros
Hindus used it too, but in a different context. |
Hindus still use it.Arya means a person of Noble Behaviour in Sanskrit.
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Sharrukin
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 23:48 |
I've recently done a study of the use of the term "Aryan" in the RigVeda. The result does not support the idea that it meant "gentleman". Instead I've found passages which refer to "Aryan tribes", to "Aryans" and "Dasas/Dasyus" being separate groups, of specific "Aryans" being killed by the gods, of prayers for protection against "Aryans", and "godless Aryans". My conclusion is that Vedic Aryans were as the Iranian Aryans, an ethno-linguistic group. Aryan, meaning a "gentleman" dates from a later period.
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Posted: 02-May-2006 at 23:54 |
Originally posted by Sharrukin
I've recently done a study of the use of the term "Aryan" in the RigVeda. The result does not support the idea that it meant "gentleman". Instead I've found passages which refer to "Aryan tribes", to "Aryans" and "Dasas/Dasyus" being separate groups, of specific "Aryans" being killed by the gods, of prayers for protection against "Aryans", and "godless Aryans". My conclusion is that Vedic Aryans were as the Iranian Aryans, an ethno-linguistic group. Aryan, meaning a "gentleman" dates from a later period. |
The term "Aryan" is German/English.Rigveda is composed in Sanskrit.
Which translation of Rigveda did you refer to Sharrukin?
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Sharrukin
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Posted: 03-May-2006 at 00:05 |
The term "Aryan" is German/English.Rigveda is composed in Sanskrit. |
Right. I use the "German/English term" Aryan in place of the Sanskrit word "Arya".
Which translation of Rigveda did you refer to Sharrukin? |
To the Griffith translation:
http://www.intratext.com/ixt/ENG0039/_index.htm
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Posted: 03-May-2006 at 00:18 |
[QUOTE=Sharrukin]To the Griffith translation/QUOTE]
That explains your using the German/English term.
Anyway I personally think it's difficult to pinpoint where the IE family of languages originated.There are different views on this issue.Maybe a more learned member like Maju could have thrown more light on this issue.
If we are talking about a great race of human beings having originated in Northern Europe in this thread,who were very tall and had blonde hair and blue eyes,then I have no objection.Highest concentration of people [in the old world] with Blonde Hair and Blue Eyes is in Europe.They might have originated from any part of Europe.It's fine with me.Doesn't matter if they originated from North,South,East,West or Centre of Europe.
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Sharrukin
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Posted: 03-May-2006 at 00:40 |
The issue is how the term "Aryan" is used. The initial argument was that is was a "race" originating in Northern Europe. Some of us object to the use of this word on the basis that historically it was originally used by Iranians and Indians to describe their populations. It had a clearly ethno-linguistic (not racial) connotation, and no other people used the term. The ancient Greeks certainly knew the term, and they were conscious that the Iranians used it for themselves. Herodotus wrote that the Medes were originally called Arioi, and that later classical geographers referred to Iran as Ariana. To use the term "Aryan" out of its historical context and in a racial sense only causes confusion.
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Posted: 03-May-2006 at 00:50 |
Originally posted by Sharrukin
The issue is how the term "Aryan" is used. The initial argument was that is was a "race" originating in Northern Europe. Some of us object to the use of this word on the basis that historically it was originally used by Iranians and Indians to describe their populations. It had a clearly ethno-linguistic (not racial) connotation, and no other people used the term. The ancient Greeks certainly knew the term, and they were conscious that the Iranians used it for themselves. Herodotus wrote that the Medes were originally called Arioi, and that later classical geographers referred to Iran as Ariana. To use the term "Aryan" out of its historical context and in a racial sense only causes confusion. |
We are living in a globalising world Sharrukin.People learn from one another.Even in the present era of IPR and Copyrite laws people plagiarise.After some time all knowledge is open for genral public to use.Take the case of drugs.
There are misconceptions everywhere. 0 and the decimal number system were invented in India.I read in my school textbooks that the decimal number system is 'Arabic Numerals.'
I agree with the 'confusion' bit.
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Posted: 03-May-2006 at 04:12 |
I agree with the 'confusion' bit. |
Then let's debunk "Aryan myths".
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Posted: 04-May-2006 at 22:09 |
Old college friend of mine sent me this, I'm not sure if it is accurate. The carvings of these Persians look very N. European to me. - gens
"Indian depictions of
Persians as Nordics and mixed types
At the time when the Greek writer
Xenophon praised what he called "tall beautiful Persian
women" (during the 6th century BC), the Persian envoys to
India were depicted in still existent paintings in the Ajanta
caves outside Bombay as light skinned, blue eyed and blond, or
dark skinned and blue eyed with a fair beard. (Ujflvy,
L'Anthropologie, vol. ii., 1900). This is the first tangible sign
that the Indo-European Persians had started mixing with the
darker natives of their land. By the fourth century, this process
had spread dramatically to where only a very few of the ruling
class could still claim pure Indo-European ancestry.
Alexander Sarcophagus
Colored engravings on the famous
Alexander Sarcophagus (also known as the "Sarcophagus of
Sidon" - because it was found in Sidon - today in the
Archaeological Museum in Istanbul), dating from 310 BC, show a
number of Persian warriors as having light eyes and hair with
fair or red mustaches.
Left:The
Alexander Sarcophagus, circa 310 BC. Archaeological Museum,
Istanbul. Also known as the Sarcophagus of Sidon, the city in
which it was first found. Right: Details from the Alexandrian
Sarcophagus: two Persian heads from the time of Alexander the
Great. Both are Nordic sub-racial types, and the originals are
color painted with fair hair and blue eyes.
Finally the already largely mixed
race Persians were to be overrun by the new White force in the
region: the Indo-European Macedonians under Alexander the Great
in a series of battles between 334 and 331 BC.
Culture
The Persians built vast and very
good roads for the efficient administration of their huge empire,
but are probably best remembered for their religion called
Zoroastrianism. Founded by a prophet named Zarathustra, the basic
religious concept of a never ending battle between good and evil
supernatural powers, was later plagiarized by the early
Christians and worked into the biblical New Testament (the
concepts of heaven and hell are not mentioned at all in the
Christian Old Testament).
Whites in the Middle East
Submerged
The fall of the Persian Empire
marks the end of the great majority White civilizations in the
Near East. By this time virtually all of the settlements in the
greater region had lost whatever racial homogeneity they once
had, and were to larger or smaller degrees societies comprised of
a plethora of mixed races, producing the wide and varied
physiognomy visible to this day in the region - a mix of Semitic
and original White stock. From the time of the fall of the
Persian Empire however, the near East ceased to be an area which
was majority occupied by peoples who could claim to be White in
the original racial sense of the word."
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Zagros
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Posted: 05-May-2006 at 04:24 |
That reads as though it is from the March of the Titans which was written by racists and is backed by no sources. The Near East has never been majority white, that article is a load of bullsh*t. I have yet to see these paintings in the Ajanta caves so I can't comment.
And it is no requirement for one to come from Northern Europe if they have blond hair or blue eyes, and I do know Iranians with such features. I suggest, however, that you read Xenophon's description of Cyrus the Great, the first Achaemenid emperor. And it is certainly no requirement to be Northern European to be tall. Iranians are still tall.
"Both are Nordic sub-racial types, and the originals are color painted with fair hair and blue eyes. "
No they are not nordic, they could be slavic too but since they are depicting Iranians, we'll have to say that they are Iranic like most other Iranians. And the originals are not painted.
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